Obstetrics and Gynaecology MCQ

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MCQ on Obstetrics and Gynaecology

1. Pick up the CORRECT one
Implantation occurs following fertilization of an ovum on
(a) 2nd day
(b) 4th day
(c) 6th day
(d) 8th day

2. Pick up the WRONG one
The following are the features of Braxton Hicks contractions during pregnancy
(a) Regular and frequent
(b) Painless
(c) No adverse on the fetus
(d) All of the above

3. Pick up the WRONG one
The following are related to the delivery of Head in normal labour
(a) During crowning, the biparietal diameter stretches the vulval outlet
(b) Successive parts of fetal head to be born are face, brow and vertex
(c) Restitution occurs in the direction opposite to that of internal rotation
(d) Head is born with flexion

4. Pick up the CORRECT one
During the active phase of labour, the effective cervical dilatation in primigravida should be at the rate of
(a) 1 cm per hour
(b) 1.5 cm per hour
(c) 2 cm per hour
(d) None of the above

5. Continued pregnancy following threatened abortion is likely to have more incidence of
(a) Premature labour
(b) Intrauterine grow thretardation of foetus
(c) Fetal malformation
(d) All of the above

6. The best method for of evacuation of missed abortion of more than 12 weeks
(a) Oxytocin infusion
(b) Intramuscular injection of prostaglandin 15 methyl PGF2alpha
(c) Prostaglandin E2 by vaginal route
(d) Suction evacuation

7. Pick up the WRONG one
The contraindications of cervical encirclage operation
(a) Leaking membranes
(b) Features of amnionit is
(c) History of vaginal spot ting
(d) Pregnancy beyond 14 weeks

8. Pick up the CORRECT one
Commonest type of uniovular twins is
(a) Diamniotic monochorionic
(b) Diamniotic dichorionic
(c) Monoamniotic monochorionic
(d) None of the above

9. Pick up the WRONG one
The role of caesarean section in eclampsia
(a) Caesarean section is ideal in eclampsia
(b) Suitable in selected cases in ideal circumstances
(c) Risky in adverse circumstances
(d) Lifesaving in status eclampticus

10. Pick up the WRONG one
The following are related to management of acute obstetrical inversion of uterus
(a) To replace the uterus urgently even without anesthesia before shock develops
(b) Replace the part first which is inverted first
(c) If shock develops prior to replacement, resu scitation is to be done first.
(d) Hydrostatic method is effective and less shock producing

11. Pick up the WRONG one
The Spiegelberg’s criteria in the diagnosis of ovarian pregnancy are
(a) Fallopian tube on the affected side must be intact
(b) The gestational sac must be in the position of the ovary
(c) The gestational sac is connected with infundibulopelvic ligament
(d) Ovarian tissue must be found on its wall on histological examination

12. Pick up the WRONG one
The following statement s are related to continuous fetal heart monitoring
(a) Beat to beat variation is not a reliable index of intrauterine fetal status
(b) Late deceleration is suggestive of chronic placental insufficiency
(c) Variable deceleration is due to cord compression
(d) Early deceleration is due to head compression

13. Pick up the CORRECT one
The Commonest cause of perinatal mortality in India is
(a) Intracranial hemorrhage
(b) Congenital malformations
(c) Prematurity
(d) None of the above

14. Least used method of female sterilisation in India
(a) Minilap
(b) Laproscopic sterilisation
(c) Conventional post-partum abdominal sterilisation
(d) Vaginal sterilisation

15. The best way to terminate pregnancy in intrauterine fetal death is by the use of
(a) Prostaglandins
(b) Oxytocin infusion
(c) Intraamniotic instillation if hypertonic saline
(d) Trans cervical extra amniotic ethacridine lactate

16. Pick up the WRONG one
The following statement s are related to management of organic heart disease with pregnancy
(a) The cases are to be well supervised
(b) The cases should have a mandatory hospital delivery
(c) There is hardly any place of induction of labour for heart lesion
(d) Termination of pregnancy has got a definitive place in unresponsive case of grade 4 even beyond 16 weeks of pregnancy

17. Pick up the CORRECT one
The best way to tackle the blood coagulation disorders in abruption placenta
(a) Massive fresh blood transfusion
(b) To administer fibrinogen rich substances
(c) Use of antifibrinolytic substances
(d) Use of heparin

18. The best procedure to diagnose carcinoma cervix following positive cytology is
(a) Four quadrant cervical biopsy
(b) Ring biopsy
(c) Colposcopic directed biopsy
(d) None of the above

19. Endometrial carcinoma of uterus is more related to
(a) Feminising ovarian tumor
(b) Polycystic ovarian disease
(c) Exogenous oestrogen therapy
(d) All of the above

20. Commonest endometrial pattern in dysfunctional uterine bleeding is
(a) Atrophic
(b) Hyperplastic
(c) Normal pattern
(d) None of the above

21. Pick up the WRONG one
The following statement s are related to the treatment of carcinoma Cervix stage 1B
(a) Surgery and radiotherapy have almost equal 5 year survival rate
(b) Surgery has got greater morbidity than radiotherapy
(c) Radiotherapy has got limitation in radioresistant cases
(d) In younger age group radiotherapy is preferable

22. Pick up the WRONG one
The advantages of cryosurgery over electro cauterization for cervical erosion are
(a) Less discomfort to the patient
(b) Post procedural bleeding is much less
(c) Post Procedural vaginal discharge is negligible
(d) cervical stenosis is extremely rare

23. Pick up the CORRECT one
Ovarian tumor producing features of thyrotoxicosis
(a) Lipid cell tumor
(b) Dermoid
(c) Struma ovarii
(d) Carcinoid tumor

24. Pick up the WRONG one
The following are related to the collection of material for Pap smear
(a) Lubricants are avoided
(b) To make the slide dry before fixation
(c) To immerse the slide in fixative containing 95% Ether and alcohol
(d) None of the above

25. The most popular Family planning method used in India
(a) Female sterilization
(b) Vasectomy
(c) Convention al contraceptives
(d) Oral pill

26. A huge cystic ovarian tumor in a young girl of 18 years should be best removed by
(a) First perform tapping of ovarian cyst per abdomen to reduce its size followed by removal at a later stage
(b) To give a small abdominal incision and reduce its size by trocar and then remove the reduced cyst through that small incision
(c) Removal of the intact cyst through an adequate abdominal incision
(d) All of the above

27. A nulliparous uterine prolapsed should be best treated by
(a) Fothergill’s type of operation
(b) Ventrisuspension of the uterus
(c) Cervicopexy
(d) Ring pessary

28. Pick up the WRONG one
Chocolate cyst of ovary should be surgically dealt with by
(a) Resection of the ovary
(b) Oophorectomy
(c) Ovarian cystectomy
(d) None of the above

29. Pick up the WRONG one
Clomiphene is
(a) Anti oestrogen
(b) Anti androgen
(c) A stimulator of FSH production
(d) None of the above

30. Pick up the CORRECT one
Post coital test should preferably be done
(a) Any day of the cycle
(b) Within 2 days prior to ovulation
(c) After 2 days of ovulation
(d) All of the above

31. Pick up the correct one:
Amniotic Fluid volume at 40 weeks pregnancy is normally about
(a) 300 to 500 ml.
(b) 600 to 800 ml.
(c) 900 to 1200 ml .
(d) 1300 to 1500 m l.

32. Commonest cause of early abortion is
(a) Defective germ plasm
(b) Endocrinal defect
(c) Defective sperm
(d) Rhincompatibility

33. Pick up the correct one:
Type of Eclampsia comm on in India
(a) Antepartum
(b) Intrapartum
(c) Post partum
(d) All of the above

34. Pick up the correct one:
The engaging diameter of the After-coming head in Breech delivery
(a) Sub-occipito-Bregmatic
(b) Suboccipito-Frontal
(c) Occipito-Frontal
(d) Submento-Verti cal

35. Pick up the wrong one:
The following statements are related to Placenta Praevia
(a) Placenta is attached more commonly to posterior wall of uterus
(b) Type III and IV constitute about one-third
(c) Placental and Cord abnormalities are comm on
(d) The amount of blood loss is almost always related to degree of placenta praevia

36. Pick up the right one:
Detectable amount of Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin appears in maternal serum as early as
(a) 2 days after implantation
(b) 3 days after implantation
(c) 5 days after implantation
(d) 7 days after implantation

37. Pick up the correct one:
The concentration of Alpha-foeto Protein in maternal serum during normal pregnancy at 12-16 wks is
(a) 100 g/L
(b) 150 g/L
(c) 200 g/L
(d) 250 g/L

38. Pick up the right one:
Absence of Meconium staining of Liquor amnil may occur even when the foetus is compromised in utero in
(a) Premature Baby
(b) Rhisoimmunisat ion with severe anemia of baby
(c) Imperforate Anus
(d) All of the above

39. Pick up the correct one:
During Suction evacuation for MTP, the pressure of the suction is raised to
(a) 100-200 mmHq
(b) 200-300 mmHq
(c) 400-600 mmHq
(d) 700-900 mmHq

40. Pick up the correct one:
In Muller-Munrokerr method of testing cephalopelvic disproportion, the tips of internal finger should be placed
(a) At the level of inlet plane
(b) At the level of midpelvic plane
(c) At the level of lower pole of head
(d) None of the above

41. The best way to terminate pregnancy in Intrauterine foetal death is by use of
(a) Prostaglandins
(b) Oxytocin Infusion
(c) Intra amniotic instillation of hypertonic saline
(d) Trans cervical extra amniotic ethacridine lactate

42. Pick up the wrong one:
Single umbilical artery is commonly associated with the following
(a) Babies born of diabetic mothers
(b) Congenital malformed babies
(c) Pre-eclamptic toxaemia
(d) Intra uterine growth retardation

43. Pick up the wrong one:
Blood coagulopathy in ” abruptio placentae” is due to
(a) Decreased synthesis of fibrinogen
(b) Enhanced fibrinolytic activity
(c) Decreased fibrinogenolysis
(d) Consumption Coagulopathy

44. Pick up the wrong one:
The following statements are related to Rupture Uterus:
(a) Lower segment uterine scar rarely ruptures during pregnancy
(b) Uteroculoplastyscar hardly ruptures
(c) Classical or Hysterotomy scar has go t chance of rupture during late pregnancy
(d) Spontaneous rupture in uninjured uterus usually involves its posterior wall

45. Pick up the correct one:
The following vital statis tics are expressed in relation to number of births as per FIGO
(a) The maternal mortality rate is expressed as numbered deaths per 100,000 total births
(b) Perinatal mortality rate is expressed in terms of deaths per 1000 live births
(c) Still birth rate is expressed in terms of deaths per 1000 live births
(d) Neonatal death rate is expressed in terms of deaths per 1000 live births