Model Question Papers for MBBS Students Jobs and Interview
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MBBS Students Model Question Papers
1. Adolescence starts at the age of-
A) 7 years.
B) 10 years.
C) 14 years.
D) 17 years.
2. A baby can draw a circle at-
A) 12 months
B) 24- months
C) 30 months
D) 36 months
3. Treatment of breath holding spells is?
A) Pyridoxine
B) Zinc
C) Iron
D) Molybdenum
4. Neonatal period Extends up to-
A) 21 days life
B) 30 days of life
C) 28 days of life
D) 35 days of life
5. Low birth weight is defined as birth weight less than-
A) 2 Kg
B) 1 Kg
C) 1.5 Kg
D) 2.5 Kg.
6. In a new born, what is the normal respiratory rate?
A) 10 — 20 breath/ minute
B) 30 — 40 breath/ minute
C) 40 — 60 breath/ minute
D) 60 – 80 breath/ minute
7. Colour of transitional stools-
A) Green
B) Brown
C) Yellow
D) Pale
8. Key feature of Kangaroo mother care is all of the following except?
A) Skin to skin contact between mother and baby
B) Exclusive breast feeding.
C) Initiated in a facility and continued at home
D) Done for babies with cyanosis
9. Retinopathy of prematurity is caused by-
A) Less
B) Low birth weight
C) O2 toxicity
D) Carbohydrate excess
10. Moro’s reflex disappear at –
A) 5 months
B) 3 months
C) 7 months
D) 6 months
11. Most common organism causing neonatal sepsis-
A) Staplylococcus aureus
B) E coli
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Kleibsiella
12. What is the body temperature range categorises a neonate as having cold stress ?
A) 35.4 m 36°c
B) 33.4 to 34°c
C) 44.4 to 35.4°c
D) 36 to 36.4°c
13. Best indicator of growth monitoring in children-
A) Weight
B) Mid upper arm circumference
C) Rate of height and weight
D) Head circumference
14. In which stage corneal Xerosis is seen?
A) Stage XI
B) Stage X2
C) Stage X3A
D) Stage X3 B
15. Rehydration therapy is a 2 year old child after diarrhea with some dehydration?
A) 30 ml/kg in 1 hour -70 ml in 5 hour
B) 30 ml/kg in 30 m -70ml in 2.5 hour
C) 20 ml/kg in 30 m — 50ml/kg in 2.5 hour
D) 75ml/kg in 4 hour
16. Trisomy 13 is in-
A) Edward Syndrome
B) Patau Syndrome
C) DOWN Syndrome
D) Tumer Syndrome
17. All are seen in Lactose intolerance except-
A) Benedict test
B) Alkaline urine
C) Acidic stool
D) Lactase enzyme deficiency
18. Most common cause of acute otitis media in children is:
A) Streptococcus pneumonae
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Pseudomonas
19. A child after 4 week of birth is acyanotic but a systemic murmur is detected:
A) VSD
B) PDA
C) TOF
D) Coarctation of Aorta
20. Concentration of K+ (potassium) in ORS is —
A) 20
B) 40
C) 90
D) 10
21. Best time to do chorionic villous sampling is
A) 6-8 weeks
B) 7-9 weeks
C) 9-11 weeks
D) 11-13 weeks
22. In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occur around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?
A) 24 hours prior to ovulation
B) Accompanied by ovulation
C) 48 hours after the ovulation
D) At the time of fertilization
23. In early pregnancy the clinical sign of soft cervix is
A) Hegar sign
B) Chadwick sign
C) Godell’s sign
D) osiander sign
24. Which one of the following congenital malformations of the fetus can be diagnosed in the first trimester by USG
A) Anenccphaly
B) dysplastic kidney
C) microcephaly
D) holoprosencephaly
25. Most common tumor to show metastasis to placenta is
A) Ca breast
B) Ca lung
C) Melanoma
D) Ca cervix
26. Moebius syndrome occurs due to maternal intake of
A) Mifepristone
B) Misoprostol
C) DES
D) meth otrexate
27. Pain in early labour is limited to
A) T11T12
B) S152
C) L4L5
D) L2L3
28. A G2P1L1 with previous LSCS presents with hematuria during labour . The most likely diagnosis is
A) impending rupture of scar
B) urethral trauma
C) prolong labour
D) cystitis
29. A patient with RHD has PPH .which of the following drugs is contraindicated ?
A) Mifepristone
B) Methylergometrine
C) Oxytocin
D) Carboprost
30. In a case of recurrent spontaneous abortion the following investigation is unwanted?
A) Hysteroscopy
B) Testing for APLA
C) Testing for TORCH infections
D) Thyroid function tests.
31. The shape of cervix (on usg) which indicates a competent os
A) T shaped
B) Y shaped
C) V shaped
D) U shaped
32. False about partial mole
A) Caused by triploidy
B) Can be diagnosed very early by USG
C) Can present as missed abortion
D) Rarely causes persisted GTD
33. B lynch suture is applied on
A) Cervix
B) Uterus
C) Fallopian tube
D) Ovaries
34. Vaginal delivery is allowed in all, expect
A) Monochorionic monoamniotic twin
B) Extended breech
C) Dichorionic twins with 1st cephalic and 2nd breech presentation
D) Mento-anterior face
35. Lactational amenorrhoea is due to
A) Prolactin suppressing GnRH
B) Prolactin increases FSH & LH
C) Prolactin increases‘ estrogen and progesterone
D) All of the above
36. A 28 year old primigravida was diagnosed as a case of gestational hypertension at 28 weeks. She presents at 32 weeks with pain abdomen. On examination, PR=98/ min, BP=100/60mmHg, Hb=6gm%.Per abdomen uterus 34weeks, tonically contracted with absent FHR. On pervaginal examination, no active bleeding seen. The diagnosis is
A) concealed placenta previa
B) revealed placenta previa
C) concealed abruptio placentae
D) revealed abruption placentae
37. A 32 years old primigravida with 34 weeks of pregnancy suddenly complaints of headache, oliguria and blunrring of vision. Her BP is 180/110mmHg and urine for albumin is 3+.The first line of management is
A) wait and watch
B) LSCS
C) induction of labour
D) anticonvulsants +antihypertensives therapy
38. A pregnant lady presents with genital warts. The best management is —
(A) Imiquimod
(B) Tricholoroacetic acid
(C) Podophyllin
(D) Cryotherapy
39. The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is —
A) Cervix
B) Vagina
C) Ampulla of fallopian tube
D) Isthmus of fallopian tube
40. Ring of fire sign in ultrasound is seen in
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Twin pregnancy
C) Hydatidiform mole
D) Missed abortion
41. From which of the following layers the regeneration of endometrium takes place
A) zona basalis
B) zona pellucidum
C) zona compacta
D) zona spongiosa
42. Use of oral contraceptive pills are known to protect against following malignancies except
A) ovarian carcinoma
B) endometrial carcinoma
C) uterine sarcoma
D) carcinoma cervix
43. The most common site of tubal sterilisation is —
A) Ampulla
B) Interstitium
C) Isthmus
D) Fimbriae
44. Drug of choice for galactorrhoea is
A) Bromocriptine
B) Cabergoline
C) Metformin
D) Dopamine
45. All of the following is associated with PCOS except-
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) CA endometrium
C) CA ovary
D) Osteoporosis
46. A 20 year old woman gives a history of sharp pain in the lower abdomen for 2-3 days every month approximately 2 weeks before her menses. The most probable aetiology is —
A) Endometriosis
B) Dysmenorrhoea
C) Pelvic TB
D) Mittelschmerz
47. A 35 yr old woman presents with primary infertility and palpable adnexal mass. Her CA 125 level is 90 IU/ml. the most likely diagnosis is —
A) Epithelial ovarian CA
B) Endometrioma
C) Tuberculosis
D) Borderline ovarian tumour
48. A young male presents with delayed puberty with decreased FSH, LH, and testosterone. Which of the following isn’t possible?
A) Kallman syndrome
B) Klinefelters syndrome
C) Constitutional
D) DAX-1 gene mutation
49. The investigation of choice in a 55year old post menopausal women who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is
A) Pap smear
B) Fractional curettage
C) TVS
D) CA-125
50. which of the following is not used as emergency contraceptive
A) LNG-intrauterine system
B) Oral LNG
C) Mifepristone
D) Cu-T device
