Ophthalmology Practice Set

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Practice Set of Ophthalmology

1. The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of the orbit is —
(1) Superior rectus
(2) Superior oblique
(3) Inferior oblique
(4) Inferior rectus

2. The type of optic atrophy that follows retro — bulbar neuritis is —
(1) Secondary optic atrophy
(2) Consecutive optic atrophy
(3) Glaucomatous optic atrophy
(4) Primary optic atrophy

3. Most common cause of adult unilateral proptosis is —
(1) Thyroid ophthalmopathy
(2) Metastasis
(3) Lymphoma
(4) Meningioma

4. With regard to the anatomy of the lacrimal sac, which statement is correct?
(1) Itis Jateral to the angular vein.
(2) It is only related to the medial palpebral ligament posteriorly.
(3) It lies adjacent to the superior meatus of the nose.
(4) It lies in the lacrimal fossa and lamina papyracea is thinnest bone.

5. Bulging in limbal area lined mostly by iris tissue usually occurs after perforation or untreated glaucoma is. —
(1) Ciliary staphyloma
(2) Equatorial staphyloma
(3) Intercalary staphyloma
(4) Posterior staphyloma

6. Which one of these is an early pathological feature of diabetic retinopathy?
(1) Capillary basement membrane thinning
(2) Increased retinal blood flow
(3) Loss of capillary pericytes
(4) Retinal capillary closure

7. The youngest lens fibres are present in —
(1) Central core of lens nucleus
(2) Outer layer of nucleus
(3) Deeper layer of cortex
(4) Superficial layer of cortex

8. Angle closure glaucoma can be precipitated by —
(1) Phenytoin
(2) Topiramate
(3) Valproate
(4) Carbamazepine

9. Least common corneal dystrophy is —
(1) Macular dystrophy
(2) Lattice type I
(3) Lattice type III
(4) Granular corneal dystrophy

10. Universal marker of limbal epithelial stem cell is —
(1) Elastin AA
(2) Collagen – BZ
(3) Keratin
(4) ABCG-2

11. Pseudogerontoxon is hallmark sign of —
(1) Trachoma
(2) VKC (Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis)
(3) Atopic Keratoconjunctivitis
(4) Giant papillary conjunctivitis

12. Only complication of trachoma is —
(1) Trichiasis
(2) Entropion
(3) Corneal opacity
(4) Corneal ulcer

13. Active and sudden onset of flashes and floaters in 55 age patient is usually —
(1) Posterior vitreous detachment
(2) Vitreous haemorrhage
(3) Retinal vein occlusion
(4) Retinal detachment

14. True regarding cotton wool spots are all, except —
(1) Result from arteriolar occlusion in the nerve fibre layer
(2) Tend to persist for a shorter duration in hypertensive retinopathy as compared to diabetic
(3) Are usually greater than 1 disc diameter in size
(4) Result from interruption of axoplasmic flow

15. All of the following take part in the pathogenesis of macular edema in diabetic retinopathy, except —
(1) Retinal pigment epithelium dysfunction
(2) Oxidative stress
(3) VEGF
(4) Increased protein kinase —C

16. A 7-year-old presents with left exotropia; right eye has 6/6 vision with normal fundus. Left eye has only close hand movements with subretinal yellow exudates and retinal detachment and telengiectatic vessels. Diagnosis is —
(1) Sympathetic ophthalmia
(2) Coats disease
(3) ROP
(4) Familial Exudative Vitreoretinopathy (FEVR)

17. With regard to the sclera, which statement is incorrect?
(1) It consists of regularly spaced collagen fibers.
(2) It fuses posteriorly with the dural sheath of the optic nerve.
(3) It is pierced by the vortex veins posterior to the equator.
(4) It is thinnest behind the insertions of the rectus muscles.

18. The most frequent cataract type seen in adult retinitis pigmentosa patient is —
(1) Posterior subcapsular
(2) Anterior polar
(3) Cortical
(4) Mixed

19. How many mm (distance) from the limbus is the safest site of intravitreal injection?
(1) 1-2mm
(2) 2-3mm
(3) 3-4mm
(4) 4-5 mm

20. The action of inferior oblique is —
(1) Depression, extorsion, abduction
(2) Depression, extorsion, adduction
(3) Elevation, intorsion, abduction
(4) Elevation, extorsion, abduction

21. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except —
(1) Miosis, anhidrosis
(2) Enopthalmos
(3) Ptosis
(4) Presence of cilitospinal reflex

22. Amsler’s grid is used to evaluate —
(1) Central 10 degree of vision
(2) Central 20 degree of vision
(3) Peripheral vision
(4) Lens opacity

23. Newer method to treat open-angle glaucoma is —
(1) Cryopexy
(2) Cyclodiathermy
(3) Argon laser
(4) Cyclo micro-pulse laser

24. The newest technique for IOL power calculation in which ray tracing and instead of A constant, C constant is used, is —
(1) Haigis formula
(2) Olsen formula
(3) Binkhorst — II
(4) Barrett Universal II

25. What is the most important sign of globe rupture due to blunt trauma?
(1) Chemosis and Hyphaene
(2) Prolapse of iris
(3) Hypotony
(4) Sub normal vision

26. Stocker’s line is seen in —
(1) Pinguecula
(2) Trachoma
(3) Pterygium
(4) Concretions

27. Drug which increase uveoscleral outflow –
(1) Epinephrine
(2) Prostaglandins
(3) Apraclonidine
(4) All of the above

28. To assess the corneal biomechanics, the best device is —
(1) Topographer
(2) Ocular response analyzer
(3) Corvis—ST
(4) Tomogram

29. The diagnostic modality of choice to diagnose retinoblastoma in children is —
(1) CT Scan with Contrast
(2) MRI with Contrast
(3) USG—B-Scan
(4) X-ray – Digital

30. A window defect in FFA is usually due to —
(1) Dysfunction of vascular endothelial tight junction
(2) Due to prolonged retention in tissue
(3) Due to breakdown of RPE tight junction
(4) Due to normal choroidal fluorescence through a defect or loss of RPE

31. Reduced blinking frequency in thyroid ophthalmopathy is termed as —
(1) Kocher’s sign
(2) Stellwag’s sign
(3) Griffith’s sign
(4) Von Graefe’s sign

32. Lateral wall of orbit is formed by —
(1) Orbital surface of greater wing of sphenoid and frontal process of zygomatic
(2) Lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal process of zygomatic
(3) Lesser wing of sphenoid and maxillae
(4) Frontal bone and lesser wing of sphenoid

33. Blunt injury to eye causes recession of angle of eye because of —
(1) Tear of ciliary body
(2) Schlemm canal split
(3) Trabecular meshwork split
(4) Dislocation of the lens

34. Vortex keratopathy is common side effect of —
(1) Amiodarone
(2) Latanoprost
(3) Phenothiazine
(4) Pilocarpine 2%

35. Attachment of vitreous is strongest at —
(1) Foveal region
(2) Back of lens
(3) Across ora serrata
(4) Margin of optic disc

36. All are present in Reiter syndrome, except —
(1) Cataract
(2) Conjunctivitis
(3) Uveitis
(4) Retinal vasculitis

37. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) causes —
(1) Internal ophthalmoplegia
(2) External ophthalmoplegia
(3) Retrobulbar neuritis
(4) Corneal anaesthesia

38. In rheumatoid arthritis, all are present, except —
(1) Glaucoma
(2) Iridocyclitis
(3) Dry Eye
(4) Scleritis

39. In 2006—7 RAAB survey most common cause of blindness after cataract is —
(1) Glaucoma
(2) Refractive error
(3) Corneal opacity
(4) ARMD

40. Accessory lacrimal gland of Wolfring are situated at —
(1) Lower tarsus
(2) Upper tarsus
(3) Bulbar conjunctiva
(4) Limbus

41. Commonest congenital tumor of conjunctiva is —
(1) Pinguecula
(2) Epibulbar dermoid
(3) Nevus of Ota
(4) Trachoma

42. Conjunctival Goblet cells secrete —
(1) Lipid
(2) Mucous
(3) Aqueous
(4) None of the above

43. Cause of Mucin deficiency in dry eye —
(1) Trachoma
(2) Ocular pemphigoid
(3) S—J syndrome
(4) All of the above

44. Conjunctival Epithelium is —
(1) Pseudo stratified
(2) Stratified columnar
(3) Transitional
(4) Stratified non-keratinized squamous

45. Thickest portion of sclera —
(1) Anterior to rectus muscle insertion
(2) Posterior ‘to rectus muscle insertion
(3) Posterior pole
(4) Limbus

46. Yoke muscle for right superior rectus is —
(1) Left superior rectus
(2) Left inferior rectus
(3) Right superior oblique
(4) Left inferior oblique

47. Jn aqueous formation share of ultrafiltration is —
(1) 15%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%

48. Which part of orbicularis oculi is known as Horner’s muscle?
(1) Lacrimal
(2) Orbital
(3) Temporal
(4) Miuller’s muscle

49. Fincham’s test differentiates cataract from —
(1) Conjunctivitis
(2) Acute congestive glaucoma
(3) Inidocyclitis
(4) Keratitis

50. Hutchinson’s rule is related to —
(1) Herpes simplex keratitis
(2) Herpes zoster keratitis
(3) Mycotic keratitis
(4) Third nerve palsy