Endocrinology Practice Set

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Endocrinology Practice Set

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Practice Set on Endocrinology

1. Prader Willi syndrome is characterised by all EXCEPT :-
(1) Hypoadrenalism
(2) Short stature
(3) Obesity
(4) Hypomentation

2. Resistin a signaling peptide is secreted by :-
(1) Granulosa theca cells
(2) Islets of Langerhans
(3) Adipocytes
(4) Renal tubular cells

3. Tumor necrosis factor a can be secreted by all EXCEPT :-
(1) Adipocytes
(2) Macrophages
(3) Monocytes
(4) Myocytes

4. Which of the following is not a diagnostic criteria for Insulinoma ?
(1) Plasma glucose < 60 mg/dL
(2) Plasma Insulin (RIA) > 6 µu/ml
(3) Plasma C-peptide > 200 p mol/L
(4) B Hydroxybutyrate < 2.7 n mol/L

5. Following drug is/are used in patient with insulinoma to prevent hypoglycaemia :-
(1) Diazoxide
(2) Somatostatin analogue octreotide
(3) Somatostatin analogue Lantreotide
(4) All of above

6. Allare true about insulinoma EXCEPT :-
(1) 80% are benign a single.
(2) May be seen in patients with MEN 1 syndrome.
(3) 99% of sporadic tumor are seen in pancreas.
(4) Medical therapy is treatment of choice for non-metastatic disease.

7. Which of the following is not a characteristic clinical feature of glucogonoma ?
(1) Necrolytic Migratory erythema
(2) Venous thrombosis
(3) Polycythemia
(4) Weight loss

8. Most common location of glucagonoma in pancreas is :-
(1) Head
(2) Tail
(3) Body
(4) Neck

9. Which of the following is true about Gastrinoma :-
(1) Increase fasting S.Gastrin with increased basal gastric acid secretion.
(2) Sporadic gastrinoma are usually seen as multiple nodular tumor.
(3) I.V. provocation test with secretin causes a decrease in gastrin secretion.
(4) In MENI syndrome gastrinoma appear commonly in absence of primary hyperparathyroidism.

10. Which of the following is not classical of VIP-oma ?
(1) Watery diarrhea
(2) Hypokalemia
(3) Achlorhydria
(4) Hypoglycemia

11. Medical treatment of VIPoma includes all EXCEPT :-
(1) Somatostatin analogue
(2) Streptozocin with 5-fluorouracil
(3) Ketoconazole
(4) Metoclopromide

12. All are features of Zellinger Ellison syndrome EXCEPT :-
(1) Seizures
(2) Abdominal pain & heart-burn
(3) Steatorrhoea
(4) Weight loss

13. Which of the following can be marker of carcinoid syndrome ?
(1) Urinary 5 hydroxyindol acetic acid
(2) Chromogranin A
(3) Neuropeptide K
(4) All of above

14. Which of the following is not a feature of pneumocystic thyroiditis ?
(1) Painfull
(2) Increased uptake on thyroid scan
(3) Hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism
(4) Firm and tender

15. Which of the following is not a cause of hyponatremia in patient with HIV ?
(1) HIV nephropathy
(2) SIADH
(3) HIV cardiomyopathy
(4) Arenal insufficiency

16. Which of the following protease inhibitor (PI) is least often associated with hyperlipidemia ?
(1) Saquinavir
(2) Ritonavir
(3) Atazanavir
(4) Lopinavir

17. Following can be side effect of Megestrol (synthetic progesterone) used as appetite stimulant in HIV patients :
(1) Hypogonadism
(2) Adrenal insufficiency
(3) Hypoglycemia
(4) Both (1) and (2)

18. All are true about MEN-1 EXCEPT :-
(1) Autosomal dominant inheritance
(2) Mutation in MENIN gene
(3) Estimated prevalence is 1 in 1,00,000.
(4) Most common tumor associated is parathyroid adenoma.

19. Which of the following is not associated with MEN-1! syndrome ?
(1) Parathyroid adenoma
(2) Glhioglastoma
(3) Gastrinoma
(4) Prolactinoma

20. Which of the following has associated Marfanoid habitus ?
(1) MEN 2B/MEN 3
(2) MEN 1
(3) MEN 2A
(4) MEN 4

Practice Set Quiz
MCQs Questions and Answers

21. Non-endocrine tumor associated with MEN 1 syndrome can be :-
(1) Meningioma
(2) Cutaneous Lipoma
(3) Facial angiofibroma
(4) All of above

22. MEN-4 syndrome is caused due to mutation in following gene :-
(1) MENIN
(2) RET
(3) CDKMB
(4) Fox P3

23. RET proto-oncogene mutation is seen in which syndrome ?
(1) MEN 1
(2) MEN 2
(3) MEn 3
(4) Both (2) & (3)

24. Following tumor are associated with MEN-4 :-
(1) Pituitary
(2) Sarcoma
(3) Myxoma
(4) All of above

25. The leading cause of death in patients with MEN-1 syndrome is :-
(1) Hyperparathyroidism
(2) Pancreatic NET
(3) Pituitary tumors
(4) Rhabdomyosarcoma

26. Which of the following agent is used to decrease/normalize plasma calcium & PTH levels in patients with MEN-1 ?
(1) Octreotide
(2) Calcitriol
(3) Cinacalcet
(4) Calcineurin inhibitors

27. The most common initial/first manifestation of MEN-2 syndrome is :-
(1) Pheochromocytoma
(2) Medullary carcinoma thyroid
(3) Pituitary tumor
(4) Parathyroid adenoma

28. Clinical triad of APS-1 (Autoimmune polyandocrinopathy syndrome) include all EXCEPT :-
(1) Mucocutaneous candidiasis
(2) Autoimmune hypo-parathyroidsm
(3) Addison disease
(4) Celiac disease

29. Following is not true about APS-1 :-
(1) Autosomal dominant inheritance
(2) Mutation in AIRE gene
(3) Gene involved is located on chromosome 21
(4) Autoantibodies against IFNa & IFND are present in almost all cases.

30. Which of the following is not true about APS-II ?
(1) Most common in females than males.
(2) Onset of disease in adulthood.
(3) Less common than APS-I.
(4) Exhibits familial aggregation.

31. Which of the following antibody testing is required for diagnosing APS-II ?
(1) TPO
(2) GAD
(3) Parietal cell H+/K+ ATPase
(4) All of the above

32. All are true about IPEX EXCEPT :-
(1) Mutation FOXP 3 gene
(2) Elevated Ig E & eosinophilia
(3) X-linked dominant mode of inheritance
(4) Failure to thrive

33. Long standing primary hypothyroidism while affecting pituitary can cause all EXCEPT.
(1) Diffuse thyrotroph hyperplasia
(2) Nodular thyrotroph hyperplasia
(3) Anterior pituitary enlargement
(4) Posterior pituitary enlargement

34. All of transcription factors have decisive role in thyroid gland morphogenesis EXCEPT :-
(1) TTF-1
(2) TYTF-2
(3) Pax-8
(4) THOX-1

35. Pendre’s syndrome gene (PDS/SLC 26A4) is located on :-
(1) Chromosome 7.
(2) Chromosome 11.
(3) Chromosome 12.
(4) Chromosome 19.

36. Half life of thyroxine binding globulin is :-
(1) 7 days
(2) 5 days
(3) 11 days
(4) 3 days

37. Following of drugs inhibit de-iodination of thyroxine EXCEPT :-
(1) Propyl thiouracil
(2) Dexamethasone
(3) Propanol
(4) Neomercazole

38. Side effects of excessive iodine supplementation can be all EXCEPT :-
(1) Iodine induced hypothyroidism
(2) Iodine induced thyrotoxicosis
(3) Thyroiditis
(4) Thyroid hormone resistance

39. Amiodarone can cause all EXCEPT :-
(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) Iodine induced Thyrotoxicosis (Type I)
(3) Iodine induced Thyrotoxicosis (Type I)
(4) Thyroid Neoplasm

40. Factors can cause increased uptake on thyroid scan EXCEPT :-
(1) Hyper-Thyrodism
(2) Recovery phase of subacute thyroiditis
(3) Lithium carbonate therapy
(4) Perchlorate administration

41. Following single gene defect can cause thyroid gland dysgenesis/Agenesis EXCEPT :-
(1) Pax 8 (AD)
(2) TTF-1
(3) THOX-2
(4) TF2 (AR)

42. Graves ophthalmopathy can cause
(1) Presbyopia
(2) Reduced color intensity
(3) Myopia
(4) Cataract

43. Thyrotoxicosis can cause :-
(1) Hypophosphatemia
(2) Hypocalciuria
(3) Hypocalcemia
(4) Hyper magnesemia

44. Methimazole therapy for treatment of hyperthyroidism can cause :-
(1) Cholestatic hepatitis
(2) Toxic hepatitis
(3) Decreased GFR
(4) Peripheral Neuropathy

45. All can cause hyposecretion of TSH EXCEPT —
(1) Mutation in PROP-1 gene
(2) Mutation in Pit-1 gene
(3) Mutation in TSH-β gene
(4) Mutation in TBG-α gene