Endocrinology Practice Set
Endocrinology Practice Set paper for the written examination is given below. Candidates who are looking for Endocrinology exam Practice Set paper can find in this section. The applied candidates who are getting prepared for the Endocrinology can view this page for the Endocrinology Last Ten Years Practice Set Papers.
Download the Endocrinology Practice Set & Solutions & make it as a reference for your exam preparation. Take advantage of these Endocrinology Practice Set Papers in a proper manner to get qualifying Marks. Last 5 years Endocrinology Practice Set Papers provided here. Candidates who are applied for the above exam can check and download the Endocrinology Practice Set Papers from here.
Practice Set on Endocrinology
1. Prader Willi syndrome is characterised by all EXCEPT :-
(1) Hypoadrenalism
(2) Short stature
(3) Obesity
(4) Hypomentation
2. Resistin a signaling peptide is secreted by :-
(1) Granulosa theca cells
(2) Islets of Langerhans
(3) Adipocytes
(4) Renal tubular cells
3. Tumor necrosis factor a can be secreted by all EXCEPT :-
(1) Adipocytes
(2) Macrophages
(3) Monocytes
(4) Myocytes
4. Which of the following is not a diagnostic criteria for Insulinoma ?
(1) Plasma glucose < 60 mg/dL
(2) Plasma Insulin (RIA) > 6 µu/ml
(3) Plasma C-peptide > 200 p mol/L
(4) B Hydroxybutyrate < 2.7 n mol/L
5. Following drug is/are used in patient with insulinoma to prevent hypoglycaemia :-
(1) Diazoxide
(2) Somatostatin analogue octreotide
(3) Somatostatin analogue Lantreotide
(4) All of above
6. Allare true about insulinoma EXCEPT :-
(1) 80% are benign a single.
(2) May be seen in patients with MEN 1 syndrome.
(3) 99% of sporadic tumor are seen in pancreas.
(4) Medical therapy is treatment of choice for non-metastatic disease.
7. Which of the following is not a characteristic clinical feature of glucogonoma ?
(1) Necrolytic Migratory erythema
(2) Venous thrombosis
(3) Polycythemia
(4) Weight loss
8. Most common location of glucagonoma in pancreas is :-
(1) Head
(2) Tail
(3) Body
(4) Neck
9. Which of the following is true about Gastrinoma :-
(1) Increase fasting S.Gastrin with increased basal gastric acid secretion.
(2) Sporadic gastrinoma are usually seen as multiple nodular tumor.
(3) I.V. provocation test with secretin causes a decrease in gastrin secretion.
(4) In MENI syndrome gastrinoma appear commonly in absence of primary hyperparathyroidism.
10. Which of the following is not classical of VIP-oma ?
(1) Watery diarrhea
(2) Hypokalemia
(3) Achlorhydria
(4) Hypoglycemia
11. Medical treatment of VIPoma includes all EXCEPT :-
(1) Somatostatin analogue
(2) Streptozocin with 5-fluorouracil
(3) Ketoconazole
(4) Metoclopromide
12. All are features of Zellinger Ellison syndrome EXCEPT :-
(1) Seizures
(2) Abdominal pain & heart-burn
(3) Steatorrhoea
(4) Weight loss
13. Which of the following can be marker of carcinoid syndrome ?
(1) Urinary 5 hydroxyindol acetic acid
(2) Chromogranin A
(3) Neuropeptide K
(4) All of above
14. Which of the following is not a feature of pneumocystic thyroiditis ?
(1) Painfull
(2) Increased uptake on thyroid scan
(3) Hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism
(4) Firm and tender
15. Which of the following is not a cause of hyponatremia in patient with HIV ?
(1) HIV nephropathy
(2) SIADH
(3) HIV cardiomyopathy
(4) Arenal insufficiency
16. Which of the following protease inhibitor (PI) is least often associated with hyperlipidemia ?
(1) Saquinavir
(2) Ritonavir
(3) Atazanavir
(4) Lopinavir
17. Following can be side effect of Megestrol (synthetic progesterone) used as appetite stimulant in HIV patients :
(1) Hypogonadism
(2) Adrenal insufficiency
(3) Hypoglycemia
(4) Both (1) and (2)
18. All are true about MEN-1 EXCEPT :-
(1) Autosomal dominant inheritance
(2) Mutation in MENIN gene
(3) Estimated prevalence is 1 in 1,00,000.
(4) Most common tumor associated is parathyroid adenoma.
19. Which of the following is not associated with MEN-1! syndrome ?
(1) Parathyroid adenoma
(2) Glhioglastoma
(3) Gastrinoma
(4) Prolactinoma
20. Which of the following has associated Marfanoid habitus ?
(1) MEN 2B/MEN 3
(2) MEN 1
(3) MEN 2A
(4) MEN 4
Practice Set | Quiz |
MCQs | Questions and Answers |
21. Non-endocrine tumor associated with MEN 1 syndrome can be :-
(1) Meningioma
(2) Cutaneous Lipoma
(3) Facial angiofibroma
(4) All of above
22. MEN-4 syndrome is caused due to mutation in following gene :-
(1) MENIN
(2) RET
(3) CDKMB
(4) Fox P3
23. RET proto-oncogene mutation is seen in which syndrome ?
(1) MEN 1
(2) MEN 2
(3) MEn 3
(4) Both (2) & (3)
24. Following tumor are associated with MEN-4 :-
(1) Pituitary
(2) Sarcoma
(3) Myxoma
(4) All of above
25. The leading cause of death in patients with MEN-1 syndrome is :-
(1) Hyperparathyroidism
(2) Pancreatic NET
(3) Pituitary tumors
(4) Rhabdomyosarcoma
26. Which of the following agent is used to decrease/normalize plasma calcium & PTH levels in patients with MEN-1 ?
(1) Octreotide
(2) Calcitriol
(3) Cinacalcet
(4) Calcineurin inhibitors
27. The most common initial/first manifestation of MEN-2 syndrome is :-
(1) Pheochromocytoma
(2) Medullary carcinoma thyroid
(3) Pituitary tumor
(4) Parathyroid adenoma
28. Clinical triad of APS-1 (Autoimmune polyandocrinopathy syndrome) include all EXCEPT :-
(1) Mucocutaneous candidiasis
(2) Autoimmune hypo-parathyroidsm
(3) Addison disease
(4) Celiac disease
29. Following is not true about APS-1 :-
(1) Autosomal dominant inheritance
(2) Mutation in AIRE gene
(3) Gene involved is located on chromosome 21
(4) Autoantibodies against IFNa & IFND are present in almost all cases.
30. Which of the following is not true about APS-II ?
(1) Most common in females than males.
(2) Onset of disease in adulthood.
(3) Less common than APS-I.
(4) Exhibits familial aggregation.
31. Which of the following antibody testing is required for diagnosing APS-II ?
(1) TPO
(2) GAD
(3) Parietal cell H+/K+ ATPase
(4) All of the above
32. All are true about IPEX EXCEPT :-
(1) Mutation FOXP 3 gene
(2) Elevated Ig E & eosinophilia
(3) X-linked dominant mode of inheritance
(4) Failure to thrive
33. Long standing primary hypothyroidism while affecting pituitary can cause all EXCEPT.
(1) Diffuse thyrotroph hyperplasia
(2) Nodular thyrotroph hyperplasia
(3) Anterior pituitary enlargement
(4) Posterior pituitary enlargement
34. All of transcription factors have decisive role in thyroid gland morphogenesis EXCEPT :-
(1) TTF-1
(2) TYTF-2
(3) Pax-8
(4) THOX-1
35. Pendre’s syndrome gene (PDS/SLC 26A4) is located on :-
(1) Chromosome 7.
(2) Chromosome 11.
(3) Chromosome 12.
(4) Chromosome 19.
36. Half life of thyroxine binding globulin is :-
(1) 7 days
(2) 5 days
(3) 11 days
(4) 3 days
37. Following of drugs inhibit de-iodination of thyroxine EXCEPT :-
(1) Propyl thiouracil
(2) Dexamethasone
(3) Propanol
(4) Neomercazole
38. Side effects of excessive iodine supplementation can be all EXCEPT :-
(1) Iodine induced hypothyroidism
(2) Iodine induced thyrotoxicosis
(3) Thyroiditis
(4) Thyroid hormone resistance
39. Amiodarone can cause all EXCEPT :-
(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) Iodine induced Thyrotoxicosis (Type I)
(3) Iodine induced Thyrotoxicosis (Type I)
(4) Thyroid Neoplasm
40. Factors can cause increased uptake on thyroid scan EXCEPT :-
(1) Hyper-Thyrodism
(2) Recovery phase of subacute thyroiditis
(3) Lithium carbonate therapy
(4) Perchlorate administration
41. Following single gene defect can cause thyroid gland dysgenesis/Agenesis EXCEPT :-
(1) Pax 8 (AD)
(2) TTF-1
(3) THOX-2
(4) TF2 (AR)
42. Graves ophthalmopathy can cause
(1) Presbyopia
(2) Reduced color intensity
(3) Myopia
(4) Cataract
43. Thyrotoxicosis can cause :-
(1) Hypophosphatemia
(2) Hypocalciuria
(3) Hypocalcemia
(4) Hyper magnesemia
44. Methimazole therapy for treatment of hyperthyroidism can cause :-
(1) Cholestatic hepatitis
(2) Toxic hepatitis
(3) Decreased GFR
(4) Peripheral Neuropathy
45. All can cause hyposecretion of TSH EXCEPT —
(1) Mutation in PROP-1 gene
(2) Mutation in Pit-1 gene
(3) Mutation in TSH-β gene
(4) Mutation in TBG-α gene