Medical Gastroenterology MCQ

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MCQ on Medical Gastroenterology

1. Which of the following can decrease the incidence of ERCP induced pancreatitis?
(1) Glucose-insulin
(2) Steroids
(3) Octriotide
(4) Rectal indomethacin

2. SPINK1 inactivates how much trypsin activity ?
(1) 10%
(2) 20%
(3) 30%
(4) 40%

3. Which bond is cleaved to form trpsin from trypsinogen ?
(1) Lysine-Isoleucin bond
(2) Arginine-Threonine bond
(3) Arginine-Lysine bond
(4) Threonine-Lysine bond

4. BISAP Score for acute pancreatitis Incorporates how many clinical and laboratory parameters ?
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 9

5. Necrosis is present in what percentage of acute pancreatitis patient
(1) 5-10
(2) 10-20
(3) 30-40
(4) 50-70

6. Which of the following mutation increases the risk of chronic pancreatitis ?
(1) N 32S SPINK-1
(2) N33 S SPINK-1
(3) N 34S SPINK-1
(4) N35 S SPINK-1

7. Severe chronic pancreatitis according to Cambridge classification includes all except
(1) Large cavity >10 millimetre
(2) Duct obstruction
(3) Gross irregularity of main PD
(4) <3 side branches abnormal

8. Purtschers retinopathy is due to occlusion of :
(1) Anterior retinal vein
(2) Central retinal vein
(3) Posterior retinal artery
(4) Anterior retinal artery

9. Fusion of dorsal and ventral pancreatic duct begin in vitro by
(1) 4 weeks
(2) 7 weeks
(3) 9 weeks
(4) 12 weeks

10. Least common site for pancreatic rest
(1) Ileum
(2) Jejunum
(3) Duodenum
(4) Stomach

11. Most Common congenital anatomical variant of human pancreas is
(1) Annular pancreas
(2) Pancreatic divisum
(3) Sphincter of oddi disorder
(4) Pancreatic duct stenosis

12. All are true about heredity pancreatitis except
(1) Autosomal recessive
(2) 50-70 fold increased risk of pancreatic cancer
(3) Pancreatic cancer in 4th decade
(4) Autosomal dominant

13. A single fluid collection with gas in the pancreas is graded on CECT abdomen as
(1) Grade B
(2) Grade C
(3) Grade D
(4) Grade E

14. Following features are more common in IgG Associated cholangitis than primary sclerosing cholangitis except –
(1) Segmental and long stricture with prestenotic dilatation
(2) Steroid responsive
(3) Stricture of distal common bile duct
(4) Prunned tree appearance

15. In spontaneous hacterial peritonitis Ascitic fluid PMN count is
(1) >150 cells/mm3
(2) >250 cells/mm3
(3) >500 cells/mm3
(4) >100 cells/mm3

16. University of Wisconsin solution is rich in
(1) Lactobiotin
(2) Raffinose
(3) Sobrinose
(4) Parobionate

17. How many Genotypes of Hepatitis b demonstrated till date ?
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 10

18. All are derived from mesoderm except
(1) Cholangiocytes
(2) Sinusoids
(3) Kuppfer’s cell
(4) Liver capsule

19. Which of the following cells are most responsible for host defence of pathogens ?
(1) Hepatocytes
(2) Kupffer cells
(3) Hepatic stellate cell with hepatocyte
(4) Kupffer cells and sinusoidal endothelial cell

20. Which of the following causes microsteatosis except ?
(1) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
(2) Reye’s syndrome
(3) Alcohol
(4) Valproicacid

21. Which of the following variable correlates least with patients risk of hemorrhage from esophageal varices ?
(1) Size of varices
(2) Number of varices
(3) HVPG>12 mmHg
(4) Child C decomp cirrhosis

22. All are true about acute fatty liver of pregnancy except
(1) Occurs in second half of pregnancy
(2) Defect in mitochondrial oxidation
(3) Hyperammonemia
(4) Hyperglycemia

23. UDP glucoronosyl transferase (UGT) that conjugate billirubin belongs to which UGT family ?
(1) UGT1
(2) UGT2
(3) UGT3
(4) UGT4

24. Lucey-Driscoll syndrome is related to
(1) UGT1A1 inhibitor in breast milk
(2) UGT1 A1 inhibitor in maternal serum
(3) Low UGT1 A1 at birth
(4) All of the above

25. Mutation in which of following gene produce the benign recurrent intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy ?
(1) FIC1
(2) MRP2
(3) NITCP
(4) ABCC2

26. Which of the following is not a major Serotype of HBV ?
(1) add
(2) adw
(3) ayr
(4) ayw

27. SOFOSBUVIR is best related to which of the following ?
(1) NS, Protease inhibitor
(2) NSSA Inhibitor
(3) NS5B Nucleotide inhibitor
(4) NSSB Non-nucleotide inhibitor

28. Drugs safe with any degree of renal failure with HCV infection
(1) Glecaprevir
(2) Sofosbuvir
(3) Boceprevir
(4) Simepravir

29. All of the following drugs are NSSA inhibitor except :
(1) Daclatasvir
(2) Ledipasvir
(3) Pibrentavir
(4) Glecaprevir

30. Type 2 autoimmune hepatitis is associated with which HLA haplotype ?
(1) HLA-DRB1
(2) HLA-DRB2
(3) HLA-DRB3
(4) HLA-DRB4

31. In METAVIR fibrosis score portal Fibrosis with few Septa are seen in
(1) F0
(2) F1
(3) F2
(4) F3

32. Total score in NAZER prognostic index for Wilson’s disease is
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 18

33. All are features of SCHISTOSOMASIS except
(1) Pipe stem fibrosis
(2) Presinusoidal] hypertension
(3) Early Encephalopathy
(4) No ascitis

34. Advantage of Plug Assisted Retrograde Transvenous Obliteration (PARTO) over Ballon Retrograde Transvenous Obliteration (BRTO) are all except
(1) Less procedural complication
(2) Increase procedure time
(3) Obliteration of large diameter shunts
(4) None of the above

35. Von Mcyenburg complex is
(1) Carolis disease
(2) Bile duct hamartomas
(3) Liver metastasis
(4) Extrahepatic biliary atresia

36. Secondary ‘bile acids are produced in the
(1) Liver
(2) Bile duct
(3) Small intestine
(4) Portal vein

37. Cholangiopancreatoscopy used for
(1) Managing difficult stone, strictures
(2) Drainage of peripancreatic fluids
(3) Evaluation of pancreatic cysts
(4) All of the above

38. Which is not lumen opposing metal stent (LAMS) ?
(1) Axios
(2) Nagi
(3) Spaxus, Hanaro
(4) Polyflex

39. Brown gall stones are associated with
(1) Chronic haemolysis
(2) Cirrhosis
(3) Chronic bacterial infection
(4) Gilbert syndrome

40. All of them shows false positive HIDA scan except
(1) Severe Hyperbilirubinemia
(2) Incomplete cystic duct obstruction
(3) TPN
(4) Prior biliary sphincterotomy

41. All of the following are indication for cholecystectomy except :
(1) Calcification in the gallbladder
(2) Prolonged TPN
(3) Asymptomatic gallstone in a native American
(4) Asymptomatic 8 mm stone in the bile duct

42. Bile flow in the duodenum occurs during which phase of the MMC ?
(1) Phase I
(2) Phase II
(3) Phase III
(4) In all phases

43. Nucleating factor for Cholesterol monohydrate crystals is
(1) Mucin
(2) Applipoprotein AI
(3) Applipoprotein AII
(4) All of the above

44. Which one is phospholipid export pump in bile canaliculus ?
(1) Multidrug Resistant 1 (MDR1)
(2) Multidrug Resistant 2 (MDR2)
(3) Multidrug Resistant 3 (MDR3)
(4) Multidrug Resistance 4 (MDR4)

45. During pregnancy gallbladder sludge develops in what proportion of women ?
(1) 2-3%
(2) 5-6%
(3) 10-20%
(4) 20-30%

46. Most common HLA association of primary sclerosing cholangitis patients with elevated IGG4 is
(1) HLA B08
(2) HLA DRB 11:02
(3) HLA B07
(4) HLA DRB 13:01

47. Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) represents what percentage of Total Energy Expenditure (TEE) ?
(1) 20
(2) 50
(3) 70
(4) 90

48. Half-Life of Transferrin is
(1) 2 days
(2) 5 days
(3) 7 days
(4) 9 days

49. Which one Is not 4a metabolic complications of TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) ?
(1) Hypoglycemia
(2) Hyper ammonemia
(3) Hypercalcemia
(4) Hypokalemia

50. Quetlet’s index is used to calculate
(1) BMR (Basal Metabolic Rate)
(2) BMI (Body Mass Index)
(3) TEE (Total Energy Expenditure)
(4) Thermic effect of feeding