Pharmacology Test Bank

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Test Bank on Pharmacology

1. Mechanism of action of statin is
(1) Inhibition of HMG-CoA synthetase
(2) Stimulation of HMG-CoA reductase
(3) Indirect increase of LDL receptors synthesis
(4) Inhibition of intestinal cholesterol absorption

2. Most potent statin is
(1) Simvastatin
(2) Pitavastatin
(3) Atorvastatin
(4) Rosuvastatin

3. The drugs employed for anti H-pylori therapy include all of the following except
(1) Levofloxacin
(2) Clarithomycin
(3) Tinidazole
(4) Amoxicillin

4. Which anti-emitic agent (SHT3 antagonist) can cause Q-T prolongation ?
(1) Ondansetran
(2) Granisetran
(3) Palonosetran
(4) Ramosetran

5. Regarding Aprepitant all are true except
(1) Agonist at NK1 receptor
(2) It block the emetic action of substance P
(3) Metabolized by CYP3AY, 450
(4) It crosses the blood brain barrier

6. Anti-emetic actions are produced by all mechanism except
(1) Decrease CTZ stimulation
(2) H1 Antagonistic action
(3) Olfactory apparatus stimulation
(4) SHT4 Agonistic action

7. A small amount of Atropine is added to Diphenoxylate during treatment of diarrhoea in order to
(1) Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis
(2) Discourage overdose and abuse of Diphenoxylate
(3) Block side effect of Dephenoxylate
(4) Augment the anti-motility action of Dephenoxylate.

8. The following drug is useful in treatment of neurogenic Diabetes insipidus except
(1) Amiloride
(2) Chlorpropamide
(3) Carbamazepine
(4) Hydrochlorothiazide

9. What is the drug of choice for management of Adrenal glucocorticoid induced Osteoporosis ?
(1) Alendronate
(2) Calcitonin
(3) Estrogen
(4) Vitamin D

10. Octerotide is used in all except
(1) For secretory diarrhoea in carcinoid syndrome
(2) Insulinoma
(3) Peptic ulcer due to smoking
(4) Glucagonoma

11. Conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by all except
(1) Methaimazole
(2) Propranolol
(3) Propylthiouracil
(4) Amiodarone

12. The clinical use of leuprolide includes all of the following except
(1) Endometriosis
(2) Prostate cancer
(3) Post-menopausal syndrome
(4) Precocious puberty

13. True about pioglitazone are all except
(1) Metabolized by CYP3AY in liver
(2) Selective agonist on PPARY
(3) Also useful in Diabetus mellitus type 1
(4) Should be avoided in patient with CHF

14. Most likely complication of Insulin therapy during treatment Diabetus ketoacidosis is
(1) Hypernatremia
(2) Hypoglycemia
(3) Pancreatis
(4) Hypersensitivity

15. Mifepristone is used in all except
(1) Medical termination of pregnancy
(2) Cervical ripening
(3) Post coital contraceptive
(4) Threatened abortion

16. Which of the following is aromatase inhibitor ?
(1) Danazol
(2) Itraconazole
(3) Letrozole
(4) Taxanezole

17. Mechanis of action of Tamoxifen is
(1) It block the activity of GnRH
(2) It inhibits aromatase enzyme lead to decrease formation of estrogen
(3) It has partial agonist and antagonist action on estrogen receptor
(4) It inhibit the release of FSH and LH from pituitary gland

18. Oral contraceptive pill is useful in preventing all of the following except
(1) Ovarian carcinoma
(2) Anaemia by reducing the blood loss in menorrhagia
(3) Endometrisis
(4) Carcinoma breast

19. All of the following Insulin analogues are long acting Insulin except
(1) Insulin Glulisine
(2) Insulin Glargine
(3) Insulin Detemir
(4) Insulin Degludec

20. Which Insulin analogue is approved for Intravenous use ?
(1) Insulin Lispro
(2) Insulin Aspart
(3) Insulin Glargine
(4) Insulin Detemir

21. Following statements are true about Sitagliptin except :
(1) It causes post-prandial insulin release
(2) It decreases glucagon release
(3) It slow the gastric emptying
(4) It can cause adverse drug reaction like exfoliative dermatitis and Nasopharyngitis

22. Which of the following does not cause hypoglycaemia with following anti-diabetic agent ?
(1) Nateglinide
(2) Pioglitazone
(3) Tolbutamide
(4) Glibenclamide

23. Which corticosteroid has maximum mineralocorticoid activity among the following drugs ?
(1) Dexamethasone
(2) Betamethasone
(3) Prednisolone
(4) Methylprednisolone

24. Bremelanotide is approved to use for
(1) Hormone-refractory prostate cancer
(2) Post-menopausal osteoporosis
(3) Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (HSDD)
(4) Lower Urinary Tract Symptom (LUTS)

25. True about Tibolone except
(1) It is a non-steroidal drug
(2) It has estrogenic activity
(3) It has progestational activity
(4) It has weak anti-androgenic activity

26. Bisphosphanates are used in all except
(1) Paget’s disease
(2) Vitamin D excess
(3) Postmenopausal Osteoporosis
(4) Hypercalcemia of malignancy

27. All of the following agents are Tocolytics except
(1) Ritodrine
(2) Nifedipine
(3) Atosiban
(4) Apixaban

28. Pretomanid is a/an
(1) Antiviral drug
(2) Anticancer drug
(3) Anti-Tubercular drug
(4) Drug for Rheumatoid arthritis

29. All of the following drugs are bactericidal except
(1) Rifampin
(2) Vancomycin
(3) Carbencillin
(4) Tigecycline

30. All of the following statements about Penicillin are true except
(1) It is active secreted in nephron tubules.
(2) It is commonly administered orally.
(3) It has narrow spectrum of activity.
(4) It act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.

31. The following is true about Vancomycin except
(1) It is bactericidal primarily used against gram positive bacteria.
(2) It act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.
(3) It can cause dose related ototoxicity.
(4) Vancomycin is not absorbed orally.

32. All antimicrobial agent obtain from Fungi except
(1) Chloramphenicol
(2) Penicillin
(3) Cephalosporin
(4) Griseofulvin

33. Which of the following is not true regarding Tetracycline ?
(1) It has antianabolic effect.
(2) It can cause tooth discoloration.
(3) It do not cause superinfection.
(4) It is a bacteriostatic agent.

34. The most common mechanism by which gram negative bacilli acquire chloramphenicol resistance is
(1) Decreased permeability into the bacterial cell.
(2) Acquisition of a plasmid encoded for chloramphenicol acetyl transferase.
(3) Lowered affinity for bacterial ribosomes.
(4) Expulsion of chloramphenicol from bacterial cell.

35. Which of the Fluoroquinolone can be used safely in renal failure ?
(1) Ofloxacin
(2) Ciprofloxacin
(3) Pefloxacin
(4) Comefloxacin

36. Cephalosporin which can cause bleeding as adverse drug reaction is
(1) Ceftriaxone
(2) Cefotaxime
(3) Cefazolin
(4) Ceftazidime

37. Slow acctylators of Isoniazid are more prone to develop
(1) Failure of therapy
(2) Allergic reaction
(3) Hepatotoxicity
(4) Peripheral neuropathy

38. In leprosy, the best bactericidal agent is
(1) Clofazimine
(2) Dapsone
(3) Rifampicin
(4) Ofloxacin

39. Griseofulvin is not useful in one of the following :
(1) Tinea Capitis
(2) Tinea Cruris
(3) Tinea Versicolor
(4) Tinea Pedis

40. Metronidazole is least likely to be effective in the treatment of
(1) Hepatic amoebiasis
(2) Infection caused by Bacteroides fragilis
(3) Pseudo membranous colitis
(4) Pneumococcal Pneumonia

41. Drugs of the choice for the treatment of neurocysticercosis
(1) Hydroquinone and metronidazole
(2) Mentronidazole and pyrental palmoate
(3) Cyclophosphomide and tinidazole
(4) Albendazole and praziquantal

42. All of the following are protease inhibitor for AIDS except
(1) Indinavir
(2) Abacanavir
(3) Saquinavir
(4) Lopinavir

43. Which of the following statements is false regarding Adefovir dipivoxil ?
(1) Acyclic nucleotide analogue
(2) Weil tolerated orally
(3) Used in chronic Hepatitis B infection
(4) Used in anti-retroviral therapy

44. Anti-malarial drug is known to cause neuropsychiatric adverse reaction
(1) Mefloquine
(2) Amodiaquine
(3) Quinine
(4) Yafenoquinine

45. Which of the following statements is false regarding Itraconazole ?
(1) It has broad antifungal spectrum.
(2) Oral absorption is reduced by H2 blocker.
(3) It does not have inhibitory effect on CYP3A4 like ketoconazole.
(4) It can be given by IV route.