Botany Viva Question Papers

1. Which one of these is an epigenetic cause of somaclonal variation ?
(1) Chromosomal abrasion
(2) Point mutations
(3) Transposable elements activation
(4) Methylation / demethylation

2. According to stability statistics, a genotype exhibiting small magnitude of among environmental variance will have
(1) Type I stability
(2) Type II stability
(3) Type III stability
(4) Type IV stability

3. According to Eberhart & Russel’s model for stability a stable genotype to be suitable for favourable environments should have regression coefficient (bi) value ?
(1) equal to 1
(2) greater than 1
(3) less than 1
(4) equal to zero

4. In generation mean analysis, additive x dominance interaction is represented by
(1) ‘i’ component
(2) ‘j’ component
(3) ‘k’ component
(4) ‘l’ component

5. Isogenic lines are essential for the development of
(1) Composite varieties
(2) Pure line varieties
(3) Hybrid varieties
(4) Multiline varieties

6. In maize, SI progeny selection has been found most promising for the development of
(1) Synthetic varieties
(2) Composite varieties
(3) Hybrid varieties
(4) Pure line varieties

7. In barley hybrid seed production has been done using
(1) Primary trisomic
(2) Secondary trisomic
(3) Double trisomic
(4) Balanced tertiary trisomic

8. Which one of these is associated with seed nutritional quality ?
(1) Opaque — 2
(2) Norin— 10
(3) Tift — 20
(4) Dee-gee-woo-gen

9. When genetic cause of heterosis is true overdominance in a self-pollinated crop, then it is appropriate to develop
(1) Short-term F; hybrid
(2) F, hybrid
(3) Pure lines as good as or better than F; hybrid
(4) Improved parental lines for development of F; hybrid

10. Color of tag for foundation seed certification is
(1) Golden brown
(2) Blue
(3) White
(4) Golden Yellow

11. The shortest phase in a cell cycle is
(1) G
(2) G
(3) M
(4) S

12. In case of inhibitory gene action, the F2 phenotypic ratio will be
(1) 13:3
(2) 9:7
(3) 15:1
(4) 9:3:4

13. Which of the following is non-ionizing radiation ?
(1) Beta particles
(2) Alpha particles
(3) UV rays
(4) Gamma rays

14. Which one of these is a progeny of breeder seed ?
(1) Nucleus seed
(2) Foundation seed
(3) Registered seed
(4) Certified seed

15. During back crossing, which back cross generation represents 99.8 percent genes of recurrent parent ?
(1) BC7
(2) BC8
(3) BC9
(4) BC10

16. For salinity and alkalinity affected areas, the suitable barley variety is
(1) RD 2052
(2) RD 2508
(3) RD 2624
(4) RD 2794

17. The fruit of coriander is called as
(1) Schizocarp
(2) Caryopsis
(3) Nut
(4) Achene

18. Which one of the following exploits all components of genetic variance ?
(1) Pure lines
(2) Inbreeds
(3) Hybrid varieties
(4) Open pollinated varieties

19. With reference to insect vectors, the term klenducity is related to
(1) disease escape
(2) disease tolerance
(3) disease resistance
(4) disease susceptibility

20. While considering contribution of different components of genetic variation arising from crosses between random pairs of plants in a population, the inbreeding coefficient ‘F’ will have squared value for
(1) additive variance
(2) dominance variance
(3) additive x additive variance
(4) additive x dominance variance

21. Which one of the following involves interaction of two genetic systems ?
(1) Breeding for salinity resistance
(2) Breeding for drought resistance
(3) Breeding for yield improvement
(4) Breeding for biotic stress

22. The mean yield of 100 F3 families is 250 g/plant with heritability of 60%. If the mean yield of top 5% F3 families is 370 =g/plant, then the selection differential will be equal to
(1) 120 g/plant
(2) 72 g/plant
(3) 18.5 g/plant
(4) 222 g/plant

23. Which one of these is not latest genome editing technique ?
(1) ZFNs
(2) TALENs
(3) T-DNA Insertion
(4) CRISPR — Cas 9

24. The practical usefulness of superiority of Fi hybrid in yield performance is reflected in
(1) Average heterosis
(2) Heterobeltiosis
(3) Relative heterosis
(4) Standard heterosis

25. By the year 2014, maximum number of applications received for registration of plant varieties under PPV & FR Act was in the category of
(1) New varieties
(2) Extant varieties
(3) Farmer’s varieties
(4) Essentially derived varieties

26. In right handed double helical ‘C’ form of DNA the perpendicular distance between two base pairs is
(1) 3.4A
(2) 2.6A
(3) 3.3A
(4) 3.7A

27. During the year 2016-17 the area under pearl millet cultivation in Rajasthan was approximately
(1) 30 lac ha.
(2) 40 lac ha.
(3) 50 lac ha.
(4) 60 lac ha.

28. Which one of these is a desi cotton variety ?
(1) JKCH – 1947
(2) Rasi-314
(3) Bikaneri Narma
(4) RG-8

29. The first white seeded cow-pea variety of Rajasthan is
(1) RC-101
(2) RC-19
(3) RMO-40
(4) Maru Bahar

30. The number of stamens in coriander flower is
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

31. Which one of these is also known as miracle rice variety ?
(1) IR 50
(2) IR8
(3) IR20
(4) IR 36

32. The primary centre of origin of potato crop Is
(1) China
(2) Abyssinia
(3) South America
(4) India

33. In coupling phase linkage with recombination value of 0.25 the percentage of AABB F? individuals obtained from selfing AB/ab F is equal to
(1) 6.25
(2) 14.06
(3) 24.01
(4) 48.25

34. The draft whole genome sequence of reference pearl millet genotype “Tift” is approximately
(1) 1.69 Gb
(2) 1.79 Gb
(3) 1.89 Gb
(4) 1.99 Gb

35. In genetic divergence between a set of genotypes determined by meteroglyph analyses the X and Y axis represent
(1) Two least variable characters
(2) Two most variable characters
(3) One most variable and another least variable character
(4) Any two variable characters

36. In eukaryotes, the number of copies of supervalent mRNA molecules per cell are
(1) one to few
(2) several hundreds
(3) ten thousand
(4) one million

37. Which one of these base sequences is known as Shine — Delgarno sequence ?
(1) 5′-AACAACU – 3′
(2) 5′-AGGAGGU – 3′
(3) 5′-UGGAGGU – 3′
(4) 5’—CGGCGGU —3′

38. The number of t-RNA genes in E.coli is
(1) 22
(2) 62
(3) 300
(4) 350

39. Which one of these is known as “Ochre’ stop codon ?
(1) UAG
(2) UGG
(3) UAA
(4) UGA

40. In which one of these forms of double helical DNA the Phosphate — Sugar backbone forms central core ?
(1) A form
(2) B form
(3) P form
(4) C form

41. To which one of these selection sieves, the process of ‘“Certation” is associated ?
(1) DNA repair
(2) Diplontic selection
(3) Haplontic selection
(4) Mutant expression

42. Which one of the following is not a case of epigenetics ?
(1) Paramutation
(2) Methylation
(3) Genetic imprinting
(4) Gene conversion

43. In E-coli when single lac mRNA molecule of lac operon is translated, the ratio of B-galactocidase, permease and trans acetylase is
(1) 1:1:1
(2) 1:2:1
(3) 1:0.5:0.2
(4) 2:5:0.2

44. The term “Quantitative Trait Loci” was coined by
(1) Gelderman
(2) Mather and Jinks
(3) Wright
(4) Arunachalam

45. The association of qualitative characters with quantitative characters for marker assisted selection was first used by
(1) Law
(2) Sax
(3) Swaminathan
(4) Jinks

46. Major genes affecting quantitative traits cannot be detected by
(1) Multi model distribution
(2) Offspring — parent resemblance
(3) Heterogencity of variance
(4) Normal distribution