Agad Tantra Questions and Answers
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Questions and Answers on Agad Tantra
1. In which chapter of ‘Bhzmhajya Ralnavali’ Visha Chikilsa is described?
(1) 72
(2) 67
(3) 56
(4) 29
2. In which Veda, the details of wounds, bums, poisoning, snake bite are described?
(1) Atharvaveda
(2) Rigveda
(3) Samaveda
(4) Yajurveda
3. Which Guna of Madya counters the Slakshna guna of Oja?
(1) Vishada guna
(2) Sukshma guna
(3) Vikasi guna
(4) Teekshna guna
4. According to Acharya Charaka, Mandal, Kandu symptom is found in which Vega of Visha?
(1) Pratham
(2) Saptam
(3) Pancham
(4) Tritiya
5. Fatal dose of opium is –
(1) Two hundred milligram
(2) Three gram
(3) Two gram
(4) One gram
6. As per Acharya Sushruta. how many ‘Mula Visha’ are there?
(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 12
(4) 13
7. Marquis test is done for identifying the following –
(1) Codeine
(2) Cadmium
(3) Aconitum
(4) Arsenic
8. Cavett method is used to determine —
(1) amount of blood alcohol level
(2) amount of blood opium level
(3) amount of blood cocaine level
(4) amount of blood phenol level
9. In post-mortem examination, ‘Leathery Stomach‘ is found by the poisoning of –
(1) Hydrochloric Acid
(2) Carbolic Acid
(3) Sulphuric Acid
(4) Oxalic Acid
10. By what poisoning, greenish discoloration of organs and Bronchial secretions along with. rotten egg odour around nostrils and mouth is found in post-mortem findings?
(1) Carbon dioxide poisoning
(2) Carbon monoxide poisoning
(3) Hydrogen sulfide poisoning
(4) None of the above
11. A poison which is luminous in dark and have garlic odor –
(1) Arsenic
(2) Lead
(3) Yellow phosphorus
(4) Alphos
12. ‘Mees’ lines in the nails, raindrop pigmentation on skin and numbness of hand or feet are the specific symptoms of following chronic poisoning –
(1) Arsenic
(2) Lead
(3) Thallium
(4) Mercury
13. “Garlic like odor of the gastric contents in post-mortem findings is a feature of which poisoning?
(1) Organophosphorus poisoning
(2) Cyanide poisoning
(3) Carbolic acid poisoning
(4) Aluminium Phosphide poisoning
14. A health man sleeping on [he floor bed suddenly develops abdominal pain, ptosis, dysarthria, quadriparesis at night diagnosis is –
(1) Guillain barre syndrome
(2) Krait bile
(3) Poliomyelitis
(4) Paralysis
15. As per Ashtanga Hridaya, ‘Nakulyadi Agada is specifically useful in –
(1) Darvikar sarp
(2) Gonas sarp
(3) Mandali sarp
(4) Rajiman sarp
16. According to Acharya Sushrula, “Dhvast Shiroruhanga” lakshan is –
(1) Dooshi visha
(2) Gara Visha
(3) Snake bile
(4) Scorpion sting
17. As per Ashtanga Sangraha, all are the ingredients of Doosl1ivishan’ Agada except –
(1) Pippali
(2) Jatamansi
(3) Mulethi
(4) Arjun
18. Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome is related to –
(1) Opium poisoning
(2) Cocaine poisoning
(3) Alcohol poisoning
(4) Barbiturates poisoning
19. Disulfiram is specific drug for —
(1) Alcohol dependence
(2) Heroin dependence
(3) Cocaine dependence
(4) Kuchala
20. According to Acharya Sushruta, water pollution born disease are –
(1) Shodia, Daha, Roma, Nakha Patana
(2) Kasa, Shwas, Pratishyaya
(3) Moorchha, Vaman, Atisaar
(4) Vaman, Moha, Jwar, Daha
| Kayachikitsa | Shalakya Tantra |
| Dravyaguna Vigyan | Panchakarma |
| Rachana Sharir | Shalya Tantra |
| Prasuti Tantra | Rog Nidan |
| Kriya Sharir | Agad Tantra |
21. According to Sushruta Samhita, following drugs are used for water purification except-
(1) Patla
(2) Punarnava
(3) Paribhadra
(4) Ashwakarna
22. Use of sour fruit with milk is which type of Virudha?
(1) Avastha
(2) Samyoga
(3) Parihara
(4) Samskara
23. Which disease is caused due to the intake of Mooli with/or after milk?
(1) Kushtha
(2) Jwura
(3) Raktupitta
(4) Atisara
24. Which institute has been designated as National Pharmacovigilance Centre (NPvCC)?
(1) National Institute of Ayurveda, Jaipur
(2) CCRAS, Delhi
(3) North Eastern Institute of Ayurveda and Homoeopathy, Shillong
(4) All India Institute of Ayurveda, Delhi
25. Pharmacovigilance was introduced in 1961 after reporting ‘of suspected link between fetal deformity and a drug. This drug was –
(1) Penicillin
(2) Indoprofen
(3) Thalidomide
(4) Pemoline
26. ln which type of acid poisoning Gastric Lavage can be done‘?
(1) Sulphuric Acid
(2) Hydrochloric Acid
(3) Carbolic Acid
(4) Nitric Acid
27. …………………. antidote to be used in those cases where the nature of ingested poison is unknown.
(1) Universal
(2) Mechanical
(3) Chemical
(4) Serological
28. Anti-Snake Venom may cause —
(1) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
(2) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
(3) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
(4) Type V hypersensitivity reactions
29. In the patients of Rabid animal bite (Alarka visha), which of the following drugs is suggested by Acharya Sushruta for the cauterization (Dahan Karma) just after bite –
(1) Oil
(2) Ghee
(3) Honey
(4) Decoction
30. “Shireeshadi Agada” may be used. in which poisoning?
(1) Galgolika Poisoning
(2) Vishwambhara Poisoning
(3) Shatpadi Poisoning
(4) Ahinduka Poisoning
31. The initial dose of ‘Polyvalent anti-snake venom’ in a snake bite case is –
(1) 30 ml
(2) 50 ml
(3) 20 ml
(4) 100 ml
32. Which of following drug is useful in Scorpion bite?
(1) Prazosin
(2) Fomepizole
(3) Naloxone
(4) Disulfiram
33. What upakrama should be done, if the venom is “Tvacha mamsagata”?
(1) Cauterization
(2) Cold treatment
(3) Bleeding
(4) Suction
34. Which of the following upakram is not mentioned by Acharya Charaka in Chaturvinshati upakrama?
(1) Vaman
(2) Virechan
(3) Basti
(4) Nasya
35. According to Acharya Charaka, which drug may be used for Hridyavaran upakrama?
(1) Gomay Rasu
(2) Godhuma
(3) Pili Mitti
(4) Milk of Buffalo
36. Acharyh Charaka described how many veins should cut in Dushi visha Chikitsa?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Seven
(4) Five
37. In which poisoning management Tamra Bhasma with honey for emesis may be used?
(1) Dhatoora Poisoning
(2) Guru Visha Poisoning
(3) Dushi visha Poisoning
(4) Kuchala Poisoning
38. Fatal dose of Paracetamol in adult is —
(1) 1500 mg
(2) 10-15 gm
(3) 1-2 gm
(4) 3-4 gm
39. Reye’s Syndrome is due to the toxicity of
(1) Aspirin
(2) Opiates
(3) Benzodiazepines
(4) Heparin
40. Which is used in poisonous comb contact management?
(1) Bark of Saptaparna
(2) Mooshak Parni Swarasa
(3) Giloya with Gaumutra
(4) Chandana lepa
41. As per Ashtanga Sangraha, which drug is useful in Kama Purana poisoning?
(1) Chandana Swarasa with Ghee and honey
(2) Guduchi Swarasa with Ghee and honey
(3) Bahupatra Swarasa with Ghee and honey
(4) Punamava Swarasa with ghee and honey
42. Ptosis, diplopia, Aphonia, dysphagia are characteristics symptoms of food poisoning due to –
(1) Bacillus cereus
(2) Salmonella Typhimurium
(3) Clostridium botulinum
(4) Staphylococcus aureus
43. “Neurolathyrism” is seen eating on —
(1) Mushroom
(2) Potato Skin
(3) Cotton Seeds
(4) Kesari Daal
44. If a private practitioner is convinced that the patient is suffering from homicidal poisoning. He will bound under which section to inform police?
(1) Section 37 CrPc
(2) Section 39 CrPc
(3) Section 57 CrPc
(4) Section 43 CrPc
45. In Post-mortem. findings the colour of skin and mucous membrane is yellow in following acid poisoning –
(1) Nitric Acid
(2) Hydrochloric Acid
(3) Sulphuric Acid
(4) Oxalic Acid
46. ln which poisoning ‘Hemoperfusion with charcoal is useful?
(1) Methyl Alcohol Poisoning
(2) Lithium Poisoning
(3) Barbiturate Poisoning
(4) Ethylene Glycol poisoning
47. Hemodialysis is found effective in all poisoning eases, except –
(1) Barbiturates
(2) Ethanol
(3) Methanol
(4) Kerosene oil
48. Who first started the Anthropometry?
(1) F. Gallon
(2) Alphonse Bertillon
(3) W. Herschel
(4) J. Vucetich
49. Square Skull is found in –
(1) Caucasian
(2) Mongolian
(3) Negro
(4) Primal Human
50. Tache Noire is a –
(1) Ocular changes after death
(2) Skin changes after death
(3) Temperature changes after death
(4) Changes in muscle after death
51. Livor Mortis is –
(1) Post-mortem lividity
(2) Cooling of the body
(3) Changes in the eyes
(4) Cessation of Respiration
52. “Le Facies Sympathique” is a condition seen in case of –
(1) Strangulation
(2) Accident
(3) Ante-mortem hanging
(4) Post-mortem hanging
53. Cutis anserina is found in the post-mortem findings of the following –
(1) Hanging
(2) Drowning
(3) Strangulation
(4) Burn
54. Suspended animation will be found in all these conditions, except –
(1) Drowning
(2) Electrocution
(3) Heatstroke
(4) Mercury Poisoning
55. “Joule bum” is seen in –
(1) Blast Injury
(2) Electrocution
(3) Firearm wound
(4) Lighting stroke
56. If a skull and pelvis bone of skeleton is given to the Doctor, then what will be the percentage of accuracy of finding sex of the dead body by him?
(1) 67%
(2) 78%
(3) 70%
(4) 98%
57. If “bone ash“ is the only available sample. then which one of’ the following test is useful for confirmation whether the body is of human or animal?
(1) Serological Test
(2) Hematological Test
(3) Precipitin Test
(4) RA Factor Test
58. Blister war gas is-
(1) Tabun gas
(2) Chlorine gas
(3) Mustard gas
(4) Sarin gas
59. Which one is content of “Tear Gas”?
(1) Sarin
(2) Diphenylchloroarsine
(3) Chloracetophenone
(4) Diphenylcyanoarsine
60. “A twenty six year old married woman died under suspicious circumstances. Her parents complained that her in-laws frequently demanded dowry.“ Upto how many year after marriage, this case can be considered under dowry death?
(1) Three years
(2) Five years
(3) Seven years
(4) Ten years
61. Avulsion is a type of –
(1) incised wound
(2) Lacerated wound
(3) Bruise wound
(4) Abrasion wound
62. The most common cause of erectile dysfunction is –
(1) Spinal cord injury
(2) Hemiplegia
(3) Elephantiasis
(4) Psychological
63. “Quoad Hanc‘s“ pertaining to –
(1) Impotant with one particular female but not with another
(2) Impotant towards all women
(3) Medically Impotant
(4) Legally lmpotant
64. In which of the following sexual perversions, the person does intercourse with dead body?
(1) Masochism
(2) Necrophilia
(3) Frotteurism
(4) Voyeurism
65. Which one of the following definition regarding probable sign of pregnancy is not correct?
(1) Hegar’s sign is softening of isthmus and lower segment of uterus.
(2) Goodell‘s sign is softening of the cervix from below to upward.
(3) Piskacek‘s sign is increased pulsation felt in the lateral vaginal fornix.
(4) Palmer’s sign is regular rhythmic contractions of uterus can be elicited by bimanual examination.
66. Which one is not involved in brainstem death certification under the Transplantation Human Organs Act?
(1) A doctor involved in the transplantation procedure.
(2) The doctor incharge of hospital in which the brainstem death has occurred.
(3) The doctor treating the person whose brainstem death has occurred.
(4) An independent doctor, being a specialist nominated by the incharge from the panel of names approved by appropriate authority.
67. According to Pie-conception And Prenatal Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994, any medical person who contravenes the provisions of this Act is punished with imprisonment upto –
(1) One year
(2) Three years
(3) Five years
(4) Seven years
68. Which one of the following inquest is done in Police firing death?
(1) Police Inquest
(2) Medical Examiner
(3) Coroner’s Inquest
(4) Magistrate Inquest
69. How many “Vyavahar” is mentioned in Manusamriti?
(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 21
70. If a person feels that he is very rich but actually he is Poor, so he has the following psychiatric disease –
(1) Delusion of Grandeur
(2) Delusion of Persecution
(3) Delusion of Influence
(4) Delusion of Reference
71. Under which Sec. of CrPc, a Police Officer can request a doctor to examine the accused person without his consent –
(1) Sec. 53 CrPc
(2) Sec. 57 CrPc
(3) Sec. 59 CrPc
(4) Sec. 58 CrPc
72. ln emergency case, a doctor examines the patient without consent, then he will be protected under the following sections —
(1) Sec. 92 LRC.
(2) Sec. 97 I.P.C.
(3) Sec. 59 I.P.C.
(4) Sec. 98 I.P.C.
73. If a Doctor is called by Police to attend case of road side accident, he may give First Aid and advice, then it is …………
(1) Not a doctor patient relationship
(2) It is a doctor patient relationship
(3) Duties of a doctor in consultation
(4) Professional misconduct
74. A doctor may NOT refuse to treat the patient. if the –
(1) patient is demanding specific dmg e.g. steroid
(2) patient refuses to give consent
(3) doctor does not have the knowledge belonging to any speciality
(4) patient asks for emergency treatment
75. From the following the patient is given which right?
(1) Can refuse any specific or all measures.
(2) Cannot choose his own doctor freely.
(3) To be treated in privacy.
(4) All information about his illness should not be kept confidential.
76. Which one of the followings is not true about Euthanasia?
(1) Active Euthanasia is allowed in UK.
(2) Passive Euthanasia is legal in India.
(3) Euthanasia is legal in Netherlands and Belgium.
(4) Physician assisted suicide is legal in some states of US.
77. By a doctor in court professional secrecy can be divulged under –
(1) Privileged communications
(2) Therapeutic privilege
(3) Doctrine of common knowledge
(4) Professional misconduct
78. Medical confidentiality is not essential for a doctor in the following case –
(1) Domestic servant
(2) Divorced person
(3) Convicted prisoner
(4) Undertrial prisoner
79. If amputation of wrong leg has been done by a surgeon, then the doctrine applicable is –
(1) Res Ipsa Loquitur
(2) Res Integru
(3) Res Gestae
(4) Res Judicata
80. An employer (Principal doctor) is responsible not only for his negligent act, but also for the negligent act of his employees. It is related to –
(1) Res ipsa Ioquitur
(2) Vicarious liability
(3) Malingering
(4) Mens rea
81. Patient should take treatment from which type of Vaidya?
(1) Pranabhisar
(2) Rogabhisara
(3) Chadamcher
(4) Siddha sadhita
82. As per Rasatarangni, Vatsanabha can be purify by swedan in dolayantra filled with following-
(1) Nimbu Swarasa
(2) Goat milk
(3) Kaanji
(4) Kulathi Swarasa
83. Acharya Charaka described how many Vaidya Vrtiya?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Eight
84. As per Rasatarangni, Bhallataka can be purify by swedan in dolayantra filled following-
(1) Gomutra
(2) Godugdha
(3) Narikel Jala
(4) Goat milk
85. In which formulation is added datum seeds powder?
(1) Unmadgajankush Ras
(2) Ekangveer Rus
(3) Arogyavardhini Vati
(4) Ras Sindoor
86. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, “Himwan Agada“ is effective in poisoning of –
(1) Darvikar Sarp
(2) Mandali Sarp
(3) Rajiman Sarp
(4) Gonas Sarp
87. Antidote for Benzodiazepines is –
(1) Ethanol
(2) Amyl Nitrile
(3) Flumazenil
(4) Acelylcysteine
88. As per Sharangdhar Samhita, in Pramthya what amount of water is taken for boiling Aushadha Kulka?
(1) Two times
(2) Four times
(3) Eight times
(4) Sixteen times
89. As per Sharangdhar Samhita, in Churna what amount of sharkara can mix?
(1) equal amount of churna
(2) two times of churna
(3) four times of churna
(4) six times of churna
90. What is the best analytical method for detecting inorganic elements such as Arsenic, Lead, and Thallium etc?
(1) Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)
(2) Radio Immuno Assay (RIA)
(3) High Pressure Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
(4) Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry (AAS)
91. This Analytical technique is usually employed for detection of drugs (Cannabis, L.S.D, Paraquat etc) in extremely low blood concentration –
(1) Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)
(2) Radio Immuno Assay (RIA)
(3) Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry (AAS)
(4) High Pressure Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
92. This instrument is useful to examine the Internal organs such as Oesophagus, Stomach, Duodenum etc. in case of poisoning-
(1) Ophthalmoscope
(2) Endoscope
(3) Otoscope
(4) Ultracentrifuge apparatus
93. This instrument is useful to examine the eyes in case of poisoning –
(1) Ophthalmoscope
(2) Endoscope
(3) Otoscope
(4) Sigmoidoscope
94. The enhancement of renal clearance of certain weak acids is used to –
(1) Hemodialysis
(2) Plasma exchange
(3) Alkalinization of the urine
(4) Administration of oral activated charcoal
95. Rhabdomyolysis is caused by which poisoning?
(1) Phosphorus
(2) Castor seed
(3) Croton tiglium
(4) Copper
96. Which of the animal is not used for Invivo studies?
(1) Hamster
(2) Guinea Pig
(3) Mouse
(4) Scorpion
97. ln case of oral administration of the poisons, after absorption from the gastro intestinal tract poisons are carried to –
(1) The Kidney
(2) The Liver
(3) The Spleen
(4) The Pancreas
98. The study of changes in gene expression arising from chemical exposures, is a key component of –
(1) Metabolomics
(2) Bioinformatics
(3) Toxicogenomics
(4) Proteomics
99. Chemical and other exposures causes DNA damage has occurred. if can lead to cell death or a resulting change in DNA structure, it can become fixed and passed on to-
(1) Daughter’s cells
(2) Son’s cells
(3) Grandson’s cells
(4) Granddaughter’s cells
