Pharmacology LPN Practice Tests

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LPN Practice Tests on Pharmacology

1. Which of the following is indicated for treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ?
(1) Pramipexole
(2) Riluzole
(3) Galantamine
(4) Glitiramer

2. All of the following drugs controlled substances with a risk for drug dependence except :
(1) Armodafinil
(2) Methamphetamine
(3) Atomoxetine
(4) Dexmethylphenidate

3. Lamotrigine has very common side effect of
(1) Rash
(2) Irritability
(3) Nephrotoxicity
(4) Behavioral disturbances

4. Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic agent causes maximum respiratory irritation ?
(1) Enflurane
(2) Halothane
(3) Sevoflurane
(4) Desflurane

5. Drug used for smoking cessation is
(1) Acamprosate
(2) Naloxone
(3) Carbamazepine
(4) Varenicilline

6. Which statement is TRUE about carbamazepine ?
(1) Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor
(2) Used in trigeminal neuralgia
(3) Can cause megaloblastic anaemia
(4) It is a drug of choice for status epilepticus

7. All the following drugs require dose reduction in “Cirrhosis of Liver” except
(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam
(3) Phenytoin
(4) Rifampin

8. lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) act as agonist on which receptor ?
(1) CB1 and CB2 receptors
(2) SHT receptor
(3) NDMA receptor
(4) Dopamine receptor

9. Tianeptine act as antidepressant by which mechanism of action ?
(1) Inhibit 5-HT reuptake
(2) Inhibit 5-HT and NA reuptake
(3) Increase reuptake of 5-HT
(4) Inhibit DA and 5-HT reuptake

10. Following statements are true regarding Antidepressant drugs except
(1) Citalopram is a SSRIs
(2) Mianserin is a Atypical antidepressants
(3) Bupropion inhibit reuptake of DA only
(4) Clomipramine is useful in premature ejaculation

11. Valbenazine is approved for the use for “Adverse drugs effect” of Anti-psychotic drugs is
(1) Malignant neuroleptic syndrome
(2) Acute muscular dystonias
(3) Akathisia
(4) Tardive dyskinesia

12. All are true regarding METHANOL poisoning except
(1) Hemodialysis should be done when serum methanol concentration is above 50 mg/dl.
(2) Fomepizole act by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase.
(3) Metabolic acidosis will be there in severe cases.
(4) Visual disturbances are commonly seen.

13. Which of the following is not used for alcohol withdrawal ?
(1) Disulfiram
(2) Flumazenil
(3) Acamprosate
(4) Naltrexone

14. Angel dust is
(1) Phenyl butazone
(2) Dimethoxy methyle amphetamine
(3) Phencyclidine
(4) Methylphenidate

15. Which of the following action of morphine develop little or no tolerance ?
(1) Analgesic
(2) Miosis
(3) Euphoria
(4) Nausea and Vomiting

16. Physiological antagonism is found in all except
(1) Prostacycline – Thromboxane
(2) Heparin – Protamine
(3) Adrenaline – Histamine
(4) Salbutamol – Leukotrienes

17. Ligand gates ions channels is
(1) VIP receptor
(2) Somatostatus receptor
(3) GABAb receptor
(4) GABAa receptor

18. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of salbutamol ?
(1) Tachycardia
(2) Tolerance
(3) Hypokalemia
(4) Ilypoglycemia

19. All of the following drugs increases the level of theophylline except
(1) Ciprofloxacin
(2) Barbiturates
(3) Cimetidine
(4) Allopurinol

20. All of the following statements about spironolactone are true except
(1) It is used in combination with Furosemide to decrease the chances of hyperkalemia
(2) It helps to overcome the refractoriness of thiazides
(3) It is more useful in cirrhotic and nephrotic edema
(4) It should not be given with K+ supplement.

21. Following are the adverse effects of Furosemide except
(1) Hyperuricemia
(2) Hypocalcemia
(3) Hypoglycaemia
(4) Hypomagnesemia

22. Which of the following statement is not true about diuretics ?
(1) Thiazides act on cortical diluting segment of nephron.
(2) Acetazolamide is carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
(3) Furosemide act on descending limb of loop of Henle.
(4) Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist.

23. All the following drugs reduce after load EXCEPT
(1) Lisinopril
(2) Propranolol
(3) Hydralazine
(4) GTN Glyceryle trinitrate

24. Digoxin toxicity can be increased by all except
(1) Hypokalemia
(2) Hypomagnesemia
(3) Hypercalcemia
(4) Hyperuricemia

25. Which of the following drug may cause decrease libido and impotence ?
(1) Captopril
(2) Prazocin
(3) Metoprolol
(4) Diltiazem

26. Best management for an elderly hypertensive patient who is also suffering from diabetus mellitus and bilateral renal artery stenosis
(1) Enalepril
(2) Amlodipine
(3) Propranolol
(4) Thiaziades

27. Nitroglycerine can be administered by all of the following routes except :
(1) Oral
(2) Sublingual
(3) Intramuscular
(4) Intravenous

28. All are the toxicities seen with Amiodarone therapy except
(1) Pulmonary fibrosis
(2) Corneal microdeposites
(3) Cirrhosis of liver
(4) Productive cough

29. All of the following statements are true about Quinidine except
(1) It block myocardial Na+ channels.
(2) It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels.
(3) It increases P-R and Q-T intervals on ECG.
(4) It can cause Digoxin toxicity due to displacement of tissue binding.

30. The drug of choice for rapid correction of PSVT in known Asthmatics is
(1) Adenosine
(2) Propranolol
(3) Neostigmine
(4) Verapamil

31. Lidocaine is an effective anti-arrhythmic because it
(1) Suppresses excitability in hypoxic areas of the heart
(2) Prolong the Q-T interval
(3) Prolong the P-R interval
(4) Depresses the slope of phase 0 (zero) in slow response tissues

32. All of the following drugs can cause gynaecomastia except
(1) Digoxin
(2) Amiloride
(3) Cimetidine
(4) Spironolactone

33. Potassium channel opener with anti-anginal activity is
(1) Nicorandil
(2) Dipyridamole
(3) Trimetazidine
(4) Oxyphedrine

34. Organic Nitrates produces therapeutic effect in Angina by all mechanism except
(1) Preload Reduction
(2) Afterload reduction
(3) Decrease Heart Rate
(4) Redistribution of coronary artery blood flow

35. Calcium channel blocker which can cause increase in Heart Rate is
(1) Nifedipine
(2) Amlodipine
(3) Verapamil
(4) Ditiazem

36. All the following ACEI (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors) are prodrug except
(1) Enalapril
(2) Lisinopril
(3) Perindopril
(4) Ramipril

37. All are used for treatment of pulmonary hypertension except
(1) Bosentan
(2) Sildenafil
(3) Calcium channel blocker
(4) Beta blocker

38. The treatment of hyperlipidemic paticnts with nicotinic acid (Niacin) results in
(1) Increase in VLDL
(2) Decrease in both plasma cholesterol and TGs.
(3) Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
(4) Decrease in HDL

39. Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding Antiplatelet drug ?
(1) Ticlopidine can cause neutropenia.
(2) Clopidogrel irreversibly blocks P2Y12 purinergic receptor.
(3) Prasugrel is a prodrug.
(4) Ticagrelor irreversibly blocks P2Y12 purinergic receptor.

40. Which of the following statements regarding Warfarin is true ?
(1) It is a prodrug converted to active metabolite in blood spontaneously.
(2) It has low lipophilicity and does not cross the placental barrier.
(3) It inhibit the activation of Vitamin-K dependent clotting factor.
(4) Itis inactivated by Protamine.

41. Choose the most correct statement about Iron therapy.
(1) Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy.
(2) Iron must be given orally except in Pernicious Anaemia.
(3) Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy.
(4) Infants on breastfeeding do not require medicinal iron.

42. Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of Warfarin therapy ?
(1) Factor VII
(2) Factor IX
(3) Factor X
(4) Prothrombin

43. Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Heparin ?
(1) Bleeding
(2) Thrombocytopenia
(3) Hypokalemia
(4) Osteoporosis

44. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding drugs acting on coagulation and thrombosis ?
(1) Rivaroxaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor.
(2) Dabigratran is an oral direct thrombin inhibitor.
(3) Tirofiban is an antiplatelet drug.
(4) Dipyridamole is an oral anti-coagulant.

45. Ezetimibe act by
(1) Enhancing excretion of bile acid.
(2) Decreasing absorption of cholesterol.
(3) Inhibiting HMG-CoA Reductase.
(4) Increase uptake of cholesterol by liver.