Microbiology Viva Questions

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Viva Questions on Microbiology

1. Boeck and DR Bohlav’s medium is used for the cultivation of :
(1) Entamoeoba histolytica
(2) Leishmania donovani
(3) Malaria parasite
(4) Hookworm

2. Which of the following medium is used for cultivation of malaria parasite ?
(1) Diamond‘s (TYM) medium
(2) NNN medium
(3) Cysteine peptone liver maltose media
(4) RPM, 1640 medium

3. Regarding Zika Visus, following are true, EXCEPT :
(1) ZIKA virus disease is transmitted by bite of Aedes mosquito
(2) ZIKA virus disease can be transmitted sexually
(3) ZIKA virus can be transmitted from 3 pregnant mother to foetus
(4) Vaccine or drug is available

4. Following viral diseases are transmitted by the bite of Aedes mosquito mainly Aedes aegypts, EXCEPT :
(1) Dengue
(2) Chikungunya
(3) Japanese B encephalitis
(4) Yellow fever

5. Most common cause of community acquired UTI
(1) E-cols
(2) Proteus
(3) Pseudomonas
(4) Klebsiella

6. Carrion’s disease is caused by:
(1) Bartonella henselae
(2) Bartonella quintana
(3) Bartonella bacilliformis
(4) Coxielia burnetti

7. Confirmation of Anthrax can be done during bioterrorism attack by following methods except (according to CDC, 2004)
(1) Gelatin stab agar culture
(2) Lysis by gamma phage
(3) Direct immunofluorescence test
(4) PCR

8. Xpert / MTB / RTF test is used for
(1) for assessing resistance to isoniazid
(2) for assessing multidrug resistant TB
(3) for assessing rifampicin resistance
(4) monitoring drug response in MDRTB

9. A 35-year old cook in a hotel suffered from enteric fever two year back. To diagnose the chronic carrier state in this patient, which of the following method is used ?
(1) Vi agglutination test
(2) Blood culture in BHI broth
(3) Widal test
(4) Bone marrow culture

10. Which is the commonest actiological agent of endocarditis associated with interavenous drug abusers ?
(1) Staphylococcus aureus
(2) Staphylococcus epidermidis
(3) Aspergillus fumigatus
(4) Streptococcus agalaetiae

11. Which of the following vaccine is/are live attenuated vaccine/s ?
(1) BCG Vaccine
(2) Measles Vaccine
(3) MMR Vaccine
(4) All of the above

12. In which method, an absorbent strip with a known gradient of antibiotic concentration along its length is used for antibiotic sensitivity testing ?
(1) Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion method
(2) Primary disc diffusion test
(3) Epsilometer test
(4) Agar dilution method

13. Aggregation of bacteria in slime leading to antibiotic resistance occur due to :
(1) Co-agglutination
(2) Biofilm formation
(3) Mutation leading to altered site of antibiotics
(4) Mutation generally a target by pass mechanism.

14. Which of following bacterial duo has defective cell wall ?
(1) Mycoplasma and pneumococcus
(2) Mycoplasma and protoplasts
(3) Spheroplasts and vibrio cholerae
(4) Spheroplast and chlamydia

15. Most pathogenic organisms need moderate temperature to grow, typically between 20°C and 45°C, such organisms are called :
(1) Mesophiles
(2) Psychrophiles
(3) Thermophiles
(4) Extremophiles

16. All of the following can be given for the treatment of Extended spectrum B-lactamases (ESBL) producing organisms, except –
(1) Carbapenems
(2) B lactam / lactamase inhibitor combination
(3) 3rd generation cephalosporin’s
(4) Aminoglycoside

17. Cholera toxin (CT) — all are true, except –
(1) Phage coded
(2) Act by T CAMP
(3) Ogawa and Inaba express CTX-1 and CTX-2 respectively
(4) Both 01 and 0139 possess cholera toxin

18. Campylobacter Jeuni produces diarrhea by which of the following mechanism/s ?
(1) By production of a heat-labile enterotoxin and a cytotoxin.
(2) By Invasive property of the bacterium.
(3) Both of the above mechanisms.
(4) None of the above mechanisms.

19. The causative agent of rat-bite fever is:
(1) Spirillum minus
(2) Campylobacter fetus
(3) Mobiluncus mulieris
(4) Helicobacter cinaedi

20. The causative agent of shanghai fever is:
(1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(2) Pseudomonas putida
(3) Burkholderia mallei
(4) B. Pseudomallei

21. ‘Safety pin appearance’ on methylene blue staining is a characteristic feature of:
(1) Yessenia pastis
(2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(3) Burkholderia mallei
(4) B. Pscudomallei

22. HACEK group includes all except –
(1) Haemophilus aprophillus
(2) Acinetobacter baumanii
(3) Eikenella corrodens
(4) Cardio bacterium hominis

23. Which of the following conditions of antibiotic treatment during acute infection will predispose patient to become carrier of the infective agents ?
(1) Enteritis due to salmonella serotype typhimurium
(2) Typhoid due to salmonella serotype typhi
(3) Dysentery due to shigella dysterial
(4) Enteritis due to campylobacter Jejuni

24. Blood cultures are most likely to yield positive results during the first weeks of acute disease in patients with which of the following infections ?
(1) Dysentery due to S.dysenteriae
(2) Enteritis due to salononella serotype typhimurium.
(3) Enteritis’s due to campylobacter Jeyuni
(4) Enteric fever due to salmonella serotype typhi

25. A patient who get exposed to Hepatitis B infection; which of the following markers will always be present in the patient even he becomes chronic or recurrent ?
(1) Hbs Ag
(2) Anti HBs Ab
(3) HBc AB
(4) HBe Ag

26. Antimicrobial stewardship program in a hospital is required for the following reasons, except :
(1) Rapid development of antimicrobial resistance.
(2) Misuse and overuse of antimicrobials
(3) Wide Spread use of antimicrobials humans compared to animal industry
(4) Poor antimicrobial research

27. CURB 65 score is used for :
(1) Ventilator — associated pneumonia
(2) Upper respiratory tract infections
(3) Community — associated pneumonia
(4) Tuberculosis

28. All the following automated systems can perform antimicrobial susceptibility testing, except :
(1) VITEK 2 system
(2) MALDI-TOF system
(3) Phoenix system
(4) Microscan Walk Away System

29. Which modification of PCR is used to detect RNA :
(1) Nested PCR
(2) Multiplex PCR
(3) Reverse-transcriptase PCR
(4) Real-time PCR

30. MALDI-TOF technology is used for :
(1) Bacterial culture
(2) Bacterial Identification
(3) Antimicrobial susceptibility
(4) All of the above

31. LAMP Assay has all the advantages over PCR, except :
(1) Isothermal amplification
(2) No need of thermo cycler
(3) No need of gel documentation
(4) Less false positive

32. What is the correct sequence of donning of PPEs ?
(1) Gloves — Gown — Mask — Goggles
(2) Gown — Mask — goggles — Gloves
(3) Goggles — Gloves — Mask — Gown
(4) Mask — Gown — Goggles – Gloves

33. Salvarsan was discovered by :
(1) Karl Landsteiner
(2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Gerhardt Domagk
(4) Howard Florey

34. Electron microscope differs from light microscope in all, except –
(1) Highest practical magnification
(2) Medium of travel
(3) Resolution
(4) No need for specimen preparation

35. Modification of Gram staining include all, except :
(1) Kopeloft and Behrman’s modification
(2) Kinyoun’s modification
(3) Jensen’s modification
(4) Preston and Morrell’s modification

36. Flagella can be demonstrated by
(1) India ink staining
(2) Jannic acid staining
(3) Albert staining
(4) GMS staining

37. Which of the following is wrong ?
(1) Jumbling motility — Listeria
(2) Gliding motility — Mycoplasma
(3) Cork screw motility — Campylobacter
(4) Stately motility — Clostridium

38. Which of the following disinfectant is used in plasma sterilization ?
(1) Formaldehyde
(2) Glutaraldehyde
(3) Hydrogen peroxide
(4) Ethylene oxide

39. Rideal-Walker test – all are true, except :
(1) It can be used to test phenolic, disinfectants only
(2) It tests ability of the disinfectant to act in presence of organic matter.
(3) Disinfectant is considered to be satisfactory if phenol coefficient is
(4) S. typhi is used as a test organism.

40. Which of the following method may be used in bacteriology for epidemiological purpose except ?
(1) Biotyping
(2) Phage typing
(3) Sew typing
(4) Culture

41. The process used in laboratory to produce millions of copies of DNA is:
(1) In situ polymerization
(2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) Fluctuation test

42. Which test is done to confirm that coliform bacilli detected in the presumptive test of water are Escherichia coli ?
(1) Eijkman test
(2) Membrane filtration method
(3) Turbidity test
(4) Phosphatase test

43. Synergohymenotropic toxin includes :
(1) α-haemolysin and panton valentine toxin
(2) β-haemolysin and panton valentine toxin
(3) ȣ-haemolysin and panton valentine toxin
(4) α-haemolysin and y- haemolysin

44. Community associated MRSA (CA-MRSA) differs from hospital associated MRSA by all, except :
(1) These strains express mex A gene subtype IV, V VI.
(2) Express more panton valentine (PV) toxin.
(3) They cause more invasive skin and soft tissue infection.
(4) Multidrug resistant

45. Borderline oxacillin resistant S. aureus (BORSA) strains, the mechanism of resistance is due to :
(1) Mec A gene mediated
(2) Alteration of penicillin binding Protein
(3) Hyperproduction of B lactamase
(4) Van gene mediated