Microbiology Model Question

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Model Question Papers on Microbiology

1. The specificity of an antibody is due to:
(1) its valence
(2) the heavy chains
(3) the Fc portion of the molecule
(4) the variable portion of the heavy and light chain

2. The mononuclear phagocyte system does not include :
(1) Endothelial cells
(2) Kidney mesangial cells
(3) Kupffer cells
(4) Lymph node medullary macrophages

3. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following, EXCEPT :
(1) The classification of leukemias.
(2) The identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.
(3) The identification of tumor antigens.
(4) The manipulation of the immune response.

4. Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ transplant ?
(1) MHC class I molecules
(2) MHC class II molecules
(3) MHC class III molecules
(4) All of these

5. Which of the following species of Pasteurella species has been associated with infections of the female genital tract and of newborn ?
(1) Pasteurella multocida
(2) Pasteurella pneumotropica
(3) Pasteurella ureae
(4) Pasteurella bettyae

6. Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct EXCEPT :
(1) Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer.
(2) Streptococcus pyogens stains blue because it has a thick peptidoglycan layer.
(3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not visible in Gram’s stain because it does not have a cell wall.
(4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue.

7. An 8 year old girl was playing in a slowly moving stream when she cut her foot on a sharp object. Three days later she was brought to the emergency room of a hospital because of pain and swelling at the site of the wound and drainage of pus from it. The most likely cause of the infection is –
(1) Vibrio vulnificus
(2) Escherichiacoli
(3) Aeromonas hydrophila
(4) Salmonella typhimurium

8. 16 bacteria are produced by bacterium after-
(1) 2 generation
(2) 4 generation
(3) 5 generation
(4) 3 generation

9. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Kuru, Scrapie, and Mad Cow diseases are caused by :
(1) Viroids
(2) Retroviruses
(3) DNA viruses
(4) Prions

10. Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to methicillin is most often caused by –
(1) Alternation of the major target for the drug
(2) Cell membrane impermeability
(3) Decreased uptake of the antibiotic
(4) Synthesis of a potent Beta Lactamase

11. Which one of the following factors, released by heating a suspension of sheep erythrocytes, is required for the growth of Haemophilus Influenzae in chocolate agar ?
(1) Coagulase
(2) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
(3) Hemoglobin
(4) Hemolysin

12. Which of the following bacteria are not most important causes of acute bacterial meningitis ?
(1) Neisseria meningitidis
(2) Streptococcus pneumonia
(3) Haemophilus influenza
(4) Streptococcus pyogens

13. Cold agglutinin test is useful for the diagnosis of-
(1) Mycoplasma pneumonia
(2) H. influenza
(3) N. meningitidis
(4) Cryptococcus neoformans

14. A massive lesion caused by spread of Staphylococcus aureus infection (often on the neck and upper back) is called :
(1) Boil
(2) Abscess
(3) Furuncle
(4) Carbuncle

15. Which of the following are not the characteristics of impetigo ?
(1) Common in children
(2) Can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
(3) Is highly contagious
(4) Can be caused by pseudomonads

16. The bacteria that multiply in blocked skin pores, metabolize sebum, and can lead to the development of acne are :
(1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(2) Propionibacterium spp.
(3) Serratia marcescens
(4) Streptococcus pyogenes

17. Gram-negative bacteria, responsible for food poisoning are :
(1) Salmonella
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Clostridia
(4) None of these

18. The inflammatory disease of the middle ear caused by Moraxella species is known as :
(1) Deafness
(2) Ear disorder
(3) Hearing impairment
(4) Otitis media

19. The minimum time for doubling of E.coli generation is approximately :
(1) 1 hour
(2) 30 minutes
(3) 40 minutes
(4) 20 minutes

20. In the death phase, there is a remarkable decrease in the number of :
(1) Bacteria
(2) Viable bacteria
(3) Dividing bacteria
(4) Progeny

21. Accluster of polar flagella is called :
(1) Iophotrichous
(2) Amphitrichous
(3) Monotrichous
(4) Petritrichous

22. Which of the following inference(s) indicate(s) the ability of an organism to utilize citrate as a sole source of carbon in Simmon’s citrate medium ?
(1) Blue colour
(2) Appearance of growth
(3) Both Blue colour and Appearance of growth
(4) None of these

23. A positive Mantoux test indicates an area of induration of :
(1) 4-9 mm in diameter
(2) 1-4 mm in diameter
(3) 10mm or more in diameter
(4) None of these

24. The bacteria which cause(s) tuberculosis in man is/are :
(1) M bovis
(2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(3) M africanum
(4) All of these

25. The bacteria which is microaerophilic on primary isolation, is :
(1) M fortuitum
(2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(3) M bovis
(4) None of these

26. Example of a Saprophytic bacteria is :
(1) M xenopi
(2) Msmegmatis
(3) Mycobacterium chelonei
(4) M marinum

27. Ascoli’s thermoprecipition test helps in confirming the laboratory diagnosis of :
(1) Tetanus
(2) Anthrax
(3) Typhoid
(4) Cholera

28. The test(s) which can be used to differentiate anthrax bacilli from anthracoid bacilli is/are :
(1) presence of medusa-head colony
(2) presence of capsule
(3) susceptibility to gamma phage
(4) All of these

29. The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus that may result into scalded skin syndrome is :
(1) Enterotoxin
(2) Leucocidin
(3) Epidermolytic toxin
(4) Haemolysin

30. Which of the following test(s) may establish retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal infection ?
(1) Anti-DNase B test
(2) ASO test
(3) Streptozyme test
(4) All of these

31. Which of the following Staphylococcal haemolysins does not possess leucocidal activity ?
(1) α haemolysin
(2) ȣ haemolysin
(3) β haemolysin
(4) δ haemolysin

32. Streptococcus pyogenes can be differentiated from other haemolytic Streptococci on the basis of :
(1) Bacitracin sensitivity
(2) Erythromycin sensitivity
(3) Aminoglycosides sensitivity
(4) Penicillin sensitivity

33. Which of the following test indicates the susceptibility to streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin ?
(1) Schick test
(2) Disk test
(3) ASO test
(4) Precipitation test

34. Which is most likely to be exposed on the surface of a gram-negative bacterium ?
(1) Pore protein (porin)
(2) Protein involved in energy generation
(3) Lipoteichoic acid
(4) Phospholipids

35. The next to last step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis is :
(1) synthesis of the NAM-peptide subunit.
(2) removal of the subunit from bactoprenol.
(3) linking the sugar of the disaccharide-peptide unit to the growing peptidoglycan chain.
(4) cross-linking the peptide side chains of peptidoglycan.

36. Implicit factors :
(1) depend on developing microflora
(2) can be synergistic
(3) both depend on developing microflora and can be synergistic
(4) None of these

37. The enzyme, which hydrolyses the murein is :
(1) Perxoidase
(2) Tannase
(3) Lysozyme
(4) None of these

38. Coliform bacteria on fermentation of carbohydrates yields :
(1) Lactic acid
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Formic acid
(4) All of these

39. Which of the following cross-reacts with cell wall carbohydrate of Streptococcus pyogenes ?
(1) Cardiac valves
(2) Synovial fluid
(3) Myocardium
(4) Vascular intima

40. Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for :
(1) β-haemolytic streptococci
(2) Staphylococcus aureus
(3) Corynebacterium diphtheria
(4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

41. The most pathogenic Brucella spp. For man is:
(1) B melitensis
(2) B abortus
(3) Besuis
(4) Bcanis

42. Which of the following can be identified by milk ring test ?
(1) Brucellosis
(2) Salmonellosis
(3) Bovine tuberculosis
(4) All of these

43. Colonies resembling molar teeth are produced by :
(1) Nocardia brasiliensis
(2) N. asteroids
(3) Actinomyces israelii
(4) Actinomadura madurae

44. The commonest species of Bacteroides in fragilis group, which causes human infection is :
(1) B vulgates
(2) B fragilis
(3) B ovatus
(4) B merdae

45. Which of the following bacterial colonies fluoresce brick-red in UV light ?
(1) B gingivalis
(2) B melaninogenicus
(3) Bacteroides fragilis
(4) Blevii