General Surgery Quiz
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Quiz on General Surgery
1. The most common presenting symptom in case of thyroid malignancy is
(1) Lymph node swelling
(2) Thyroid swelling
(3) Hoarseness
(4) Dysphagia
2. Sugarbaker technique is definitive treatment for –
(1) Varicose vein
(2) Tetralogy of Fallot’s
(3) Pseudomyxoma peritonei
(4) Buerger’s disease
3. Diarrhea in medullary cancer is due to –
(1) Prostaglandins
(2) Thyroglobulin
(3) Progesterone
(4) Oxytocin
4. Difference between thyrotoxicosis and malignant hyperthermia is –
(1) Hyperthermia
(2) Tachycardia
(3) Muscle rigidity
(4) Elevated serum CPK level
5. Tamoxifen is used in the treatment of –
(1) Granulomatous thyroiditis
(2) Riedel’s thyroiditis
(3) Autoimmune thyroiditis
(4) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
6. Hypospadias is classified according to the position of the meatus, except –
(1) Glandular
(2) Coronal
(3) Scrotal
(4) Perineal
7. The medial wall of axilla is formed by the –
(1) Serratus anterior muscle
(2) Subscapularis muscle
(3) Pectoralis major muscle
(4) Teres major muscle
8. Treatment of breast sarcoma is –
(1) Radical mastectomy
(2) Subcutaneous mastectomy
(3) Patey mastectomy
(4) Simple mastectomy with radiation
9. True about Mondor’s disease –
(1) The pathognomonic feature is a thrombosed subcutaneous cord, usually attached to the skin.
(2) The differential diagnosis 1s lymphatic permeation from occult carcinoma of the breast.
(3) The treatment is restriction of arm movements.
(4) All of the above
10. Tuberculosis of ileum presenting as hyper plastic tuberculosis is usually caused after –
(1) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(2) Ingestion of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(3) Secondary to mesenteric lymphadenitis
(4) Pott’s spine
11. Regarding Paget’s disease of nipple, false statement is –
(1) Caused by malignant cells in subdermal layer
(2) Associated with carcinoma breast usually
(3) Occurs in old age group
(4) 0.5% hydrocortisone is useful
12. Caecal perforation without mechanical obstruction is seen in –
(1) Ogilvie’s syndrome
(2) Lynch syndrome
(3) Burns
(4) Myxedema
13. Appendiceal epithelial tumour that is goblet cell tumour of mucinous sub type can cause syndrome known as –
(1) Turcot Pugh syndrome
(2) Gardner’s syndrome
(3) Pseudomyxoma peritonei syndrome
(4) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
14. Which of the following is associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
(1) Small cell carcinoma of lung
(2) Adenocarcinoma of lung
(3) Squamous cell carcinoma of lung
(4) Carcinoid
15. Treatment of choice for flail chest is –
(1) Mechanical ventilation
(2) Adequate analgesia
(3) Chest wall strapping
(4) Mechanical rib fixation
16. Ileal pouch anal anastomosis for ulcerative colitis is done in patient’s not responding to medical treatment and require colectomy for the procedure. Most common pouch which has stood the test of time with least complication is –
(1) S pouch
(2) W pouch
(3) H pouch
(4) J pouch
17. Following drug causes carcinoma bladder –
(1) Taxane
(2) Tamoxifen
(3) Cyclophosphamide
(4) Cisplatin
18. Most effective intravesical therapy for the superficial bladder cancer is –
(1) Adriamycin
(2) B.C.G.
(3) Mitomycin
(4) Epirubicin
19. Recto anal inhibitory reflex can be measured by –
(1) Anorectal manometry
(2) Balloon expulsion test
(3) Pudendal nerve terminal motor latency
(4) Electromyography
20. In ureterosigmoidostomy all occur, except –
(1) Acidosis
(2) Hyponatremia
(3) Hyperkalemia
(4) Hyperchloremia
| Practice Set | MCQs |
| Quiz | Questions and Answers |
21. OnIy I.V.P. Reverse J deformity is seen in –
(1) VUR
(2) Congenital megaureter
(3) Retrocaval ureter
(4) Ureterocele
22. Hanley procedure is done for –
(1) Prolapsed piles
(2) Horseshoe abscess
(3) Fistula-in-ano
(4) Prolapse rectum
23. Investigation of choice in vesicoureteric reflux is –
(1) IVP
(2) Cystography
(3) Micturating cystourethrogram
(4) Radionuclide study
24. Which of the following is true?
(1) Advanced gastric cancer — Borrmann classification
(2) Early gastric cancer — Japanese classification
(3) Gastroesophageal junction tumours — Siewert classification
(4) All of the above
25. True about varicocele due to renal cell carcinoma is –
(1) does not decompress in supine position
(2) more common on right side
(3) temperature include damage to testes occur
(4) cough impulse is positive
26. False about GIST is –
(1) Mutation in tyrosine kinase c-kit oncogenes
(2) Females more commonly affected
(3) Size and mitotic index are best predictor of metastasis
(4) Mesenchymal origin
27. Investigation of choice for localisation of Gastrinoma is –
(1) CT
(2) MRI
(3) EUS
(4) USG
28. Adenocarcinoma of esophagogastric junction is best treated by –
(1) Induction chemotherapy followed by surgery
(2) Radiotherapy followed by surgery
(3) Neoadjuvant chemo radiation followed by surgery
(4) Definitive chemo radiation
29. POEM is used for the treatment of –
(1) Adenocarcinoma of cardia
(2) Pseudo achalasia
(3) Achalasia cardia
(4) GERD
30. Most common testicular tumour in children is
(1) Leydig cell tumour
(2) Choriocarcinoma
(3) Yolk sac tumour
(4) Seminoma
31. Endoscopic ultrasonography is done using a probe of –
(1) 3 to 5 MHz
(2) 5 to 12 MHz
(3) 7.5 to 12 MHz
(4) 14 to 20 MHz
32. Parotid duct passes through all of the following structures, except –
(1) Buccopharyngeal fascia
(2) Buccinator
(3) Buccal pad fat
(4) Masseter
33. Perforation of typhoid ulcer usually occurs during –
(1) first week
(2) second week
(3) third week
(4) fourth week
34. Inverted three sign is seen in –
(1) Ampullary carcinoma
(2) Insulinoma
(3) Carcinoma head of pancreas
(4) CA stomach
35. False about Coeliac disease is –
(1) associated with HLA B8
(2) antiendomyceal antibody test have very high sensitivity and specificity
(3) can cause ulcerative jejunoileitis
(4) No increased risk of malignancy
36. Hypersplenism clinical syndrome is characterized by all, except –
(1) Leucopenia
(2) bone marrow hypoplasia
(3) thrombocytopenia
(4) anaemia
37. Most common tumour of appendix is –
(1) Carcinoid
(2) Epithelial
(3) Sarcomatoid
(4) metastatic
38. A common structure in Hesselbachs triangle and femoral triangle is –
(1) Conjoint tendon
(2) Inguinal ligament
(3) Inferior epigastric artery
(4) Rectus femoris
39. The most common cause of neoplastic enlargement of spleen is –
(1) Hemangioma
(2) Hemangiosarcoma
(3) sarcoma
(4) lymphoma
40. Which one of the following is not a content of rectus sheath?
(1) Superior epigastric vessels
(2) Rectus abdominis
(3) Pyramidalis
(4) Transverse abdominal muscles
41. Most common congenital anomaly of intestine –
(1) malrotation
(2) duodenal atresia
(3) imperforate anus
(4) Meckel’s diverticulum
42. Labourer’s nerve is –
(1) Ulnar nerve
(2) Radial nerve
(3) Median nerve
(4) Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
43. Spinal epidural space is largest at the level of –
(1) 12th thoracic vertebrae
(2) 1st lumbar vertebrae
(3) 2nd lumbar vertebrae
(4) 3rd lumbar vertebrae
44. The most common abnormality found in colorectal cancer is –
(1) Mutation in the WNT signalling pathway
(2) Mutation in the TP53 gene
(3) Overexpression of oncogene protein KRAS, RAF
(4) Inactivation of tumour suppressor gene, PTEN
45. Secondaries in-the neck lymph node from occult primary in the thyroid is –
(1) Ectopic thyroid
(2) Aberrant thyroid
(3) Solitary nodule of thyroid
(4) Dominant nodule thyroid
46. Gastrointestinal disorder predisposing to urolithiasis is
(1) Short bowel syndrome
(2) Ulcerative colitis
(3) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
(4) Familial polyposis coli
47. True about LIFT is –
(1) sphincter preserving procedure
(2) used in suprasphincteric fistula
(3) used in intersphincteric fistula
(4) maintains continence in upto 50%
48. A neonate presented in emergency with bilious vomiting and X-ray abdomen showed bowel loops with no air fluid level. Most likely diagnosis is
(1) midgut volvulus
(2) meconium ileus
(3) intestinal atresia
(4) meconium plug syndrome
49. Pringle maneuver is –
(1) 10 minutes of occlusion and 3 minutes of reperfusion
(2) 15 minutes of occlusion and 5 minutes of reperfusion
(3) 20 minutes of occlusion and 5 minutes of reperfusion
(4) 30 minutes of occlusion and.10 minutes of reperfusion
50. Most common site of intestinal duplication –
(1) Colon
(2) Ileum
(3) jejunum
(4) duodenum
51. Differentiation of FNH from metastatic cancer is by –
(1) USG
(2) CT
(3) MRI
(4) None of the above
52. International prostate symptom score 8 to 19 signifies –
(1) Mild
(2) Moderate
(3) Severe
(4) malignant
53. Echinococcus granulosus reaches liver via –
(1) hepatic vein
(2) hepatic artery
(3) portal vein
(4) biliary tree
54. Massive colonic bleeding in a patient of diverticulosis is from –
(1) gastroduodenal artery
(2) coeliac artery
(3) superior mesenteric artery
(4) inferior mesenteric artery
55. In hepatic injury true is –
(1) hepatic artery can be tied but not portal vein
(2) portal vein can be tied but not hepatic artery
(3) both can be ligated safely
(4) both can’t be ligated
56. Middle mediastinal masses include all the following, except –
(1) ganglioneuroma
(2) pericardial cyst
(3) ascending aorta aneurysm
(4) bronchogenic cyst
57. The correct statement among the following is –
(1) liver excretes bile at the rate of 80 ml/hr
(2) mucus secretion by gallbladder is 90 ml/per day
(3) seagull sign is seen in acalculous cholecystitis
(4) true incidence of cancer in porcelain gallbladder is <5%
58. Least common site of lung abscess is –
(1) right upper lobe
(2) right lower lobe
(3) left upper lobe
(4) left lower lobe
59. Most common gallstone in Asian population is –
(1) cholesterol
(2) mixed
(3) pigment
(4) oxalate
60. In video assisted thoracoscopic surgery for better vision, the space in the operative field is created by –
(1) CO2 insufflation
(2) self-retaining retractor
(3) rib spacing
