Forensic Science GK
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GK Question Papers on Forensic Science
1. Which of the following types of biological evidence contains haploid cells ?
(A) Hair
(B) Blood
(C) Sperm
(D) Saliva
2. The Phadebas test is utilized to detect :
(A) Semen stains
(B) Blood stains
(C) Urine stains
(D) Saliva stains
3. Blood group specific substances (antigens) are present on which of the following ?
(A) Erythrocytes
(B) Thrombocytes
(C) Leucocytes
(D) Plasma
4. The yellow needle shaped crystals produced in barberios test for seminal fluid examination are because of :
(A) Choline Iodide
(B) Choline Asperase
(C) Spermine Picrate
(D) Acid Phosphatase
5. Fluroglucein test for jute gives :
(A) Blue color
(B) Brick red color
(C) Pink color
(D) Pale yellow color
6. Dacron is the trade name of :
(A) Polyethylene Tetraphthalate (PET)
(B) Dimethylene Tetraphthalate (PCDT)
(C) Nylon 6, 6
(D) Nylon 6
7. Potassium ferricyanide is used for detection of which component of urine ?
(A) Urea
(B) Creatinine
(C) THG
(D) Ammonia
8. Which chemical is not responsible for oxidation of disulphide bonds in hair ?
(A) Hydrogen peroxide
(B) Mercapto ethanol
(C) Thioglycollic acid
(D) Sodium hydroxide
9. For comparison purpose, the difference in refractive index reference and questioned glass must exceed :
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.002
(C) 0.0002
(D) 0.00002
10. Thymol phthalein test is used to detect the presence of :
(A) Brick material
(B) Cement
(C) Dyes
(D) Pigments
11. The spacing in between the striations crossed by a tool having thin cutting edge changes with :
(A) Nature of teeth on tool
(B) Angle of tilt
(C) Angle of progression
(D) Relative hardness of tool and surface
12. When tyre impressions are found at crime scene, it is possible for the forensic examiner to determine :
(A) The speed at which the vehicle was moving
(B) The style and/or manufacturer of the tyre
(C) The wear and mileage on the tyre
(D) The make and model of the car
13. Release and re-application of brakes is responsible for creation of :
(A) Impending skid marks
(B) Gap skid marks
(C) Bounce skid marks
(D) Scuff marks
14. The frequency of Carabeli’s cusp is higher among :
(A) Mongoloids
(B) Caucasoids
(C) Nigroids
(D) Mongoloids as well as Nigroids
15. An accessory cusp that is found on the anterior side of the buccal surface of mandible molar, more often on first molar and rarely on second and third molar, is called a :
(A) Carabeli’s cusp
(B) Protostylid
(C) Enamel pearl
(D) Hypocone
16. The most commonly found congenitally missing teeth are :
(A) Third molar and lateral incisors
(B) First molar and canines
(C) Canines and second molar
(D) Central incisor and second pre-molar
17. Which of the following parameters can be used to determine age from skull of an infant of less than two years of age ?
(A) Closure of sagittal suture
(B) Emergence of permanent teeth
(C) Closure of frontanelles
(D) Closure of basilar suture
18. The sex of an unknown human pelvis can be better found out from which of the following parameters ?
(A) Sub-pubic angle and width and depth of greater sciatic notch
(B) Length of ilium
(C) Size of obturator foramen
(D) Thickness of sacrum
19. What is FORDISC ?
(A) It is a government agency that gives money to forensic anthropologists
(B) A special school for forensic anthropology
(C) An acronym for Forensic Odontological Research, Department of Intensive Skeletal Collection
(D) It is a computer program used to perform metric analyses on contemporary skeletal remains
20. The divergence in signature which encounters infrequently is better known as :
(A) Spurious signature
(B) Accidental variation
(C) Receipt signature
(D) Natural variation
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21. In case of “Dye Sublimation” printing technology, the type of ink used is :
(A) Liquid ink
(B) Resinous ink
(C) Dry toner
(D) Liquid toner
22. Two approaches utilized for latent print identification and individualization are :
(A) Systems engineering and human problem solving techniques
(B) Human problem solving techniques and data reduction techniques
(C) Data processing and data reduction
(D) Human agronomics and system engineering
23. Assertion (A) : The initial identification of the latent print is made by comparing it with the inked print using 2X or 3X magnifiers
Reason (R) : The magnification results into more clarity to the fingerprint for comparison
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
24. For developing latent print on mirror, it is most suitable to use :
(A) Black powder
(B) Gray powder
(C) Manganese dioxide powder
(D) A mixture of carbon and ferric oxide powder
25. The fingerprint pattern may be impaired permanently in case of :
(A) Scabies
(B) Scalds
(C) Eczema
(D) Leprosy
26. Average number of ridge characteristics found in a fingerprint is :
(A) 225
(B) 150
(C) 310
(D) 65
27. Latent prints developed with which of the following methods may be further enhanced by staining with either Gentian Violet or Coumarin 540 laser dye or Rhodamine 6G dye ?
(A) Ninhydrin
(B) Iodine fuming
(C) Alkyl-2-cyanoacrylate method
(D) Osmic acid fuming method
28. Which was the original fingerprint system adopted by Scotland Yard in 1901 that converted ridge patterns on all ten fingers into a series of letters and numbers arranged in the form of fractions ?
(A) Bertillon system
(B) William Herschel system
(C) Galton system
(D) Henry system
29. The credit for developing edgeoscopy goes to :
(A) Francis Galton
(B) Rene Forgeot
(C) Salil K. Chatterjee
(D) Richard Henry
30. Which of the following is not correct regarding diatoms ?
(A) Diatoms are aquatic unicellular plants
(B) Diatoms have an extra cellular part composed of magnesium
(C) Acid digestion technique is used to extract diatom
(D) Presence of diatom in the bone marrow is an indication of antemortem aspiration of water
31. Postmortem lividity helps in the determination of the following, except :
(A) Cause of death
(B) Time of death
(C) Motive of death
(D) Position of dead body
32. The change from fetal haemoglobin to adult haemoglobin is helpful in assessing :
(A) Period of survival of a new born infant after birth, particularly in the first six months
(B) Age of an adult
(C) Age of a juvenile
(D) Age of an adolescent
33. The large averted and irregular sized of wound is suggestive of :
(A) Entry wound of gun
(B) Exit wound of gun
(C) Stab wound
(D) Lacerated wound by blunt object
34. In which of the following asphyxia death, there is no pressure over the neck structure :
(A) Hanging
(B) Throttling
(C) Ligature strangulation
(D) Gagging
35. The alleged impact of lunar cycle on human criminal behaviour is :
(A) Lunar effect
(B) Transylvania effect
(C) Hauling effect
(D) Cosmo effect
36. In case of an attack by a wild animal results in which kind of wound ?
(A) Lacerated
(B) Bruise
(C) Gun-shot
(D) Blunt
37. Polygraph doesn’t detect :
(A) Blood pressure
(B) P-300
(C) Respiration
(D) GSR
38. The term “document” is defined under :
(A) Section-3 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(B) Section-6 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(C) Section-3 of Indian Penal Code, 1860
(D) Section-6 of Indian Penal Code, 1860
39. Tsuchihashi’s classification is associated with :
(A) Podography
(B) Cheiloscopy
(C) Dactylography
(D) Ear print
40. Inventor of MAGNA brush used for fingerprint development was :
(A) Marcello Malphigi
(B) Henry Faulds
(C) James Marsh
(D) Herbert L. McDonnell
41. Section 376 of IPC 1860 was ammended in which of the following years ?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
42. Assertion (A) : It is always easy to differentiate between class and individual characteristics
Reason (R) : Class characteristics are common to a particular group
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) is false
43. Which of the following is the correct sequence for examination of Forensic evidence ?
(A) Recognition, Identification, Individualization and Reconstruction
(B) Recognition, Individualization, Identification and Reconstruction
(C) Identification, Recognition, Individualization and Reconstruction
(D) Individualization, Recognition, Identification and Reconstruction
44. The first forensic science laboratory was established in India in which of the following years ?
(A) 1931
(B) 1941
(C) 1951
(D) 1961
45. A non-destructive instrumental method for determining crystalline structure of chemical compound is :
(A) X-ray diffraction
(B) Emission spectrography
(C) Pyrolysis gas chromatography
(D) IR-spectroscopy
46. Head space GC is used for the analysis of :
(A) Paint
(B) Blood Alcohol
(C) Benzodizepine
(D) Morphine
47. Total reflection X-ray fluorescence is a relatively new technique designed for :
(A) Surface analysis of semiconductor
(B) Surface analysis of glass
(C) Surface analysis of plastic
(D) Depth analysis of glass
48. The Beer Lambert’s law gives a linear correlation with positive gradient between :
(A) Wavelength and absorbance
(B) Molar extinction coefficient and concentration
(C) Molar extinction coefficient and absorbance
(D) Absorbance and concentration
49. FID, ECD and NPD are detectors commonly used in :
(A) GC
(B) HPLC
(C) HPTLC
(D) CE
50. Stereomicroscope can be best described as :
(A) Two comparison microscopes aligned with a comparison bridge
(B) Two compound microscopes aligned so that each of them can see a slightly different part of an object
(C) A compound microscope with two separate stage and one ocular
(D) A compound microscope with two eyepiece and a camera mount
51. In SEM, secondary electrons :
(A) strike the object releasing other electron
(B) strike the object and then reflect from the surface
(C) are emitted when a beam of primary electrons strike the object
(D) are emitted by the nucleus of the various elements when the object is struck by a beam of X-ray
52. Which of the following microscopes has the highest resolution ?
(A) SEM
(B) TEM
(C) Stereomicroscope
(D) Fluorescence microscope
53. Wavelength range of vacuum UV radiation is :
(A) 210-290 nm
(B) 250-400 nm
(C) 400-600 nm
(D) 100-200 nm
54. Flavouring and coloring agents in alcohol are collectively called as :
(A) Kick enhancing agent
(B) Additives
(C) Congenerics
(D) Fillers
55. The blue color of PDS Kerosene is due to the presence of :
(A) Rhodamine-B
(B) Fast Blue-B
(C) Di-alkyl amino anthraquinone
(D) Phenyl azo-2-naphthol
56. Assertion (A) : Derivatives of phosphoric acid having insecticidal activity are safe for mammals
Reason (R) : The replacement of one of the oxygen atoms by sulphur in the derivatives of phosphoric acid decreases the toxicity of compound related to mammals
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
57. “Crack” is abused through :
(A) Snorting
(B) Oral ingestion
(C) Injection
(D) Inhalation
58. Metallic poisons obtained after dry ashing method are analyzed using :
(A) Gel chromatography
(B) Ion chromatography
(C) Gas chromatography
(D) Miceller electrokinetic capillary chromatography
59. Which of the following is not classified as hallucinogen ?
(A) Marijuana
(B) Methadone
(C) Psilocybin
(D) LSD
60. Person who hide banned drugs into their body for the purpose of smuggling is known as :
(A) Drug Tourist
(B) Back Packers
(C) Stuffers
(D) Middle man
61. Which of the following is not an alkaloid of opium ?
(A) Codeine
(B) Narcotine
(C) Morphine
(D) Ecgonine
62. Which of the following is known as “Date Rape Drug” ?
(A) Heroin
(B) Cocaine
(C) Charas
(D) Flunitrazepam
63. Heat of conversion of explosive into gases is of the order of :
(A) Milli-sec.
(B) Micro-sec.
(C) Nano-sec.
(D) Pico-sec.
64. Which of the following is a liquid explosive ?
(A) PETN
(B) RDX
(C) TATP
(D) HMX
65. In a 7.62 × 39 mm cartridge, the two figures represents :
(A) Calibre of the firearm from which it is fired and the length of the cartridge
(B) Calibre of the firearm from which it is fired and length of the cartridge case
(C) Calibre of the firearm from which it is fired and length of the bullet loaded in cartridge
(D) Calibre and length of the chamber of the firearm from which it is fired
66. When alcohol is burnt, the flame is of :
(A) Red color
(B) Yellow/Orange color
(C) Blue color
(D) Pale yellow color
67. Secret writing written by which of the following can not be deciphered using heat treatment ?
(A) Lemon juice
(B) Saliva
(C) Onion juice
(D) Pineapple juice
68. “FACTS” in case of fingerprint examination stands for :
(A) Fingerprint analysis and criminal tracing system
(B) Fingerprint assessment and criminal tracing system
(C) Fingerprint analysis and criminal tracking system
(D) Fingerprint analysis and criminal transfer system
69. The amplification curve produced by PCR is :
(A) Linear
(B) Parabola
(C) S-shaped
(D) Inverted
70. The temperature required for denaturation of DNA in PCR is :
(A) 75ºC
(B) 95ºC
(C) 4ºC
(D) 60ºC
71. The negative controls in amplification contains all PCR components, except :
(A) Template
(B) Polymerase
(C) Magnesium
(D) dNTPs
72. The role of magnesium in PCR is :
(A) To inhibit DNA degradation
(B) Required by DNA polymerase
(C) Required for annealing
(D) Required for denaturation step
73. Which is not a step in Southern blotting procedure ?
(A) Ligation of DNA into vector
(B) Separation of DNA fragments on a gel
(C) Transfer of DNA fragments to a nitrocellulose membrane
(D) Hybridization of the membrane with a labelled probe
74. Didioxy DNA sequence exclusively depends on one of the following :
(A) Termination
(B) ATP
(C) Plasmid vector
(D) Vector primer
75. Polymerase chain reaction is considered revolutionary technology because of all of the following, except :
(A) It enables an unlimited production of DNA fragments in-vitro
(B) It is highly sensitive technology
(C) Its experimental protocol is simple
(D) It enables the direct production of synthetic gene that did not exist before
76. Which of the following is not a primary blood group ?
(A) Kell
(B) Lewis
(C) Auberger
(D) Lutheram
77. Which of the following components of human blood can be used to determine sex ?
(A) Erythrocytes
(B) Thrombocytes
(C) Leucocytes
(D) Haemoglobin
78. The agglutinins for M and N antigens :
(A) Always occur in human blood
(B) Seldom occur in human blood
(C) Occur in human saliva only
(D) Occur in human bile only
