Selected Questions on Computer Science and Engineering

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Computer Science and Engineering Selected Question Paper

1. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is termed a __________
(a) Strong entity set
(b) Variant set
(c) Weak entity set
(d) Variable set

2. In the __________ normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

3. Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state,pincode).
For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also, for given street, city and state, there is just one pincode. In normalization terms, Empdt1 is a relation in
(a) 1 NF only
(b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
(c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
(d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF

4. Each modification done in database transaction are first recorded into the
(a) Hard drive
(b) Log
(c) Disk
(d) Datamart

5. Which of the following is not a Armstrong’s Axiom?
(a) Reflexivity rule
(b) Transitivity rule
(c) Pseudotransitivity rule
(d) Augmentation rule

6. The subset of super key is a candidate key under what condition?
(a) No proper subset is a super key
(b) All subsets are super keys
(c) Subset is a super key
(d) Each subset is a super key

7. Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation ,deleting relations and relating schemas?
(a) DML(Data Manipulation Language)
(b) DDL(Data Definition Language)
(c) Query
(d) Relational Schema

8. An attribute A of datatype varchar(20) has the value “Avi”. The attribute B of datatype char(20) has value “Reed” .Here attribute A has __________ spaces and attribute B has __________ spaces.
(a) 3, 20
(b) 20, 4
(c) 20, 20
(d) 3, 4

9. ’_ _ _ ’ matches any string of __________ three characters. ’_ _ _ %’ matches any string of at __________ three characters.
(a) Atleast, Exactly
(b) Exactly, Atleast
(c) Atleast, All
(d) All , Exactly

10. In SQL the spaces at the end of the string are removed by __________ function.
(a) Upper
(b) String
(c) Trim
(d) Lower

11. What type of join is needed when you wish to include rows that do not have matching values?
(a) Equi-join
(b) Natural join
(c) Outer join
(d) All of these

12. The attribute AGE is calculated from DATE_OF_BIRTH . The attribute AGE is
(a) Single valued
(b) Multi valued
(c) Composite
(d) Derived

13. Updates that violate __________ are disallowed.
(a) Integrity constraints
(b) Transaction control
(c) Authorization
(d) DDL constraints

14. Insert into instructor values (10211, ’Smith’, ’Biology’, 66000);
What type of statement is this?
(a) DLL
(b) DML
(c) Relational
(d) DDL

15. Fill in with correct keyword to update the instructor relation.
UPDATE instructor __________ salary= salary * 1.05;
(a) Where
(b) Set
(c) In
(d) Select

16. In relational algebra, for select operation the __________ appear in the subscript and the __________ argument appears in the parenthesis after the sigma.
(a) Predicates, relation
(b) Relation, Predicates
(c) Operation, Predicates
(d) Relation, Operation

17. DBMS periodically suspends all processing and synchronizes its files and journals through the use of
(a) Checkpoint facility
(b) Backup facility
(c) Recovery manager
(d) Database change log

18. Suppose relation R(A,B,C,D,E) has the following functional dependencies:
A → B
B → C
BC → A
A → D
E → A
D → E
Which of the following is not a key?
(a) A
(b) E
(c) B,C
(d) D

19. Which of the following is used to insert a tuple from another relation.
(a) INSERT INTO course (courseid, title, deptname, credits) VALUES (’CS-437’, ’DATABASESystems’, ’CompSci.’, 4);
(b) INSERT INTO instructor SELECT ID, name, deptname, 18000 FROM student WHERE deptname = ’Music’ AND totcred > 144;
(c) INSERT INTO course VALUES (’CS-437’, ’DATABASESystems’, ’CompSci.’, 4);
(d) None of these

20. Which of the following protocols ensures conflict serializability and safety from deadlocks?
(a) Two-phase locking protocol
(b) Time-stamp ordering protocol
(c) Graph based protocol
(d) None of these

21. If transaction Ti gets an explicit lock on the file Fc in exclusive mode, then it has an __________ on all the records belonging to that file.
(a) Explicit lock in exclusive mode
(b) Implicit lock in shared mode
(c) Explicit lock in shared mode
(d) Implicit lock in exclusive mode

22. A top to bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a:
(a) Hierarchical Schema
(b) Relational Schema
(c) Network Schema
(d) Distributed Schema

23. The level of data abstraction which describes how the data is actually stored is:
(a) Physical level
(b) Conceptual level
(c) External level
(d) View level

24. Which layer is responsible for process to process delivery?
(a) network layer
(b) transport layer
(c) session layer
(d) data link layer

25. Which layers of the OSI model are host-to-host layers?
(a) Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
(b) Network, Transport, Session, Presentation
(c) Datalink, Network, Transport, Session
(d) Physical, Datalink, Network, Transport

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26. In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
(a) session layer
(b) application layer
(c) Network layer
(d) Transport layer

27. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?
(a) FDM
(b) TDM
(c) WDM
(d) None of these

28. In __________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency.
(a) synchronous
(b) statistical
(c) isochronous
(d) asynchronous

29. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of __________ encoding.
(a) analog-to-digital
(b) analog-to-analog
(c) digital-to-analog
(d) digital-to-digital

30. Phase shift keying (psk) method is used to modulate digital signals at 9600 bps using 16 levels. Find the line signaling speed (i.e., modulation rate)
(a) 1200 bands
(b) 2400 bands
(c) 3600 bands
(d) 4800 bands

31. How many bits are there in the Ethernet address?
(a) 64 bits
(b) 32 bits
(c) 16 bits
(d) 8 bits

32. FTP uses __________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

33. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 50
(d) 15

34. Connection establishment in TCP is done by which mechanism?
(a) Flow control
(b) Three-Way Handshaking
(c) Forwarding
(d) Synchronization

35. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
(a) default mode
(b) server mode
(c) line mode
(d) client mode

36. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit?
(a) CRC
(b) Checksum
(c) Simple parity check
(d) Two-dimensional parity check

37. A __________ error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed.
(a) Burst
(b) double-bit
(c) single-bit
(d) none of these

38. Network in which every computer is capable of playing the role of client, server or both at the same time is called
(a) peer-to-peer network
(b) local area network
(c) dedicated server network
(d) wide area network

39. The __________ is the physical path over which a message travels
(a) Path
(b) Medium
(c) Protocol
(d) Route

40. A set of rules that governs data communication
(a) Protocols
(b) Standards
(c) RFCs
(d) one of these

41. When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is called
(a) computer network
(b) distributed system
(c) networking system
(d) none of these

42. Two devices are in network if
(a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
(b) a process is running on both devices
(c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
(d) none of these

43. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in
(a) broadcast network
(b) unicast network
(c) multicast network
(d) none of these

44. Bluetooth is an example of
(a) personal area network
(b) local area network
(c) virtual private network
(d) none of these

45. A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.
(a) Bridge
(b) Firewall
(c) Router
(d) all of these

46. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol per layer, is called
(a) protocol architecture
(b) protocol stack
(c) protocol suit
(d) none of these

47. Which one of the following extends a private network across public networks?
(a) local area network
(b) virtual private network
(c) enterprise private network
(d) storage area network

48. The number of layers in Internet protocol stack
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) None of these

49. Application layer is implemented in
(a) End system
(b) NIC
(c) Ethernet
(d) None of these

50. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are ________
(a) Added
(b) Removed
(c) Rearranged
(d) None of these

51. Identify the statement which cannot be associated with OSI model
(a) A structured way to discuss and easier update syatem components
(b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
(c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information from another layer
(d) None of these

52. Which address identifies a process on a host?
(a) physical address
(b) logical address
(c) port address
(d) specific address

53. The physical layer concerns with
(a) bit-by-bit delivery
(b) process to process delivery
(c) application to application delivery
(d) none of these

54. physical layer provides
(a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
(b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
(c) specification for IR over optical fiber
(d) all of these

55. The physical layer translates logical communication requests from the __________ into hardware specific operations.
(a) data link layer
(b) network layer
(c) trasnport layer
(d) application layer

56. Wireless transmission can be done via
(a) radio waves
(b) microwaves
(c) infrared
(d) all of these

57. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of medium?
(a) logical link control sublayer
(b) media access control sublayer
(c) network interface control sublayer
(d) none of these

58. The Hamming distance between equal code words is __________.
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) N
(d) 2n

59. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
(a) Build & Fix Model
(b) Prototyping Model
(c) Evolutionary Model
(d) Waterfall Model

60. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?
(a) Spiral
(b) Waterfall
(c) RAD
(d) Iterative Enhancement Model

61. Choose an internal software quality from given below:
(a) scalability
(b) usability
(c) reusability
(d) reliability

62. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module?
(a) Availability
(b) Testability
(c) Usability
(d) Flexibility

63. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
(a) can be written more compactly
(b) focuses on just one thing
(c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
(d) is connected to other modules and the outside world

64. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the __________
(a) number of Functions
(b) number of user inputs
(c) number of lines of code
(d) amount of memory usage

65. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
(a) Product risk
(b) Project risk
(c) Business risk
(d) Programming risk

66. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?
(a) Unit Testing
(b) Integration Testing
(c) Acceptance Testing
(d) Regression Testing

67. If P is risk probability, L is loss, then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as__________ .
(a) RE = P/L
(b) RE = P + L
(c) RE = P*L
(d) RE = 2* P *L

68. If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is __________ .
(a) Verifiable
(b) Traceable
(c) Modifiable
(d) Complete

69. Which chart is a tool that depicts project as network diagram that is capable of graphically representing main events of project in both parallel and consecutive way?
(a) PERT chart
(b) Gantt chart
(c) Pie Chart
(d) Bar Chart

70. Which is the most important feature of spiral model?
(a) Quality management
(b) Risk management
(c) Performance management
(d) Efficiency management

71. The model in which the requirements are implemented by its category is __________ .
(a) Evolutionary Development Model
(b) Waterfall Model
(c) Prototyping
(d) Iterative Enhancement Model

72. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
(a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
(b) High amount of risk analysis
(c) Strong approval and documentation control
(d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

73. In which test design each input is tested at both ends of its valid range and just outside its valid range?
(a) Boundary value testing
(b) Equivalence class partitioning
(c) Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class partitioning
(d) Decision tables

74. Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
(a) Functional Requirement
(b) Nonfunctional Requirement
(c) Goals of implementation
(d) Algorithm for software implementation

75. Which of the following is not a characteristic common to all design methods?
(a) configuration management
(b) functional component
(c) notation quality assessment
(d) guidelines refinement heuristics

76. Checking quality of software in both simulated and live environments is known as
(a) Validity
(b) Usability
(c) Checking
(d) Validation

77. Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code) or by calculating number of function points in the software?
(a) Time estimation
(b) Effort estimation
(c) Cost estimation
(d) Software size estimation

78. Selection of a model is based on
(a) Requirements
(b) Development team & Users
(c) Project type and associated risk
(d) All of these

79. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
(a) Waterfall & RAD
(b) Prototyping & Spiral
(c) Prototyping & RAD
(d) Waterfall & Spiral

80. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
(a) Productivity
(b) Portability
(c) Timeliness
(d) Visibility

81. Purpose of process is to deliver software
(a) in time
(b) with acceptable quality
(c) that is cost efficient
(d) both ‘in time’ & ‘with acceptable quality’

82. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases, regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which focuses on what, the__________ phase which focuses on how and the__________ phase which focuses on change.
i. Support
ii. development
iii. definition
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, i, iii
(c) iii, ii, i
(d) iii, i, ii

83. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following?
(a) Entry level personnel
(b) Middle level stakeholder
(c) Managers
(d) Users of the software

84. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle?
(a) Analysis
(b) Design
(c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
(d) Development and Documentation

85. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern?
(a) Architecture
(b) Data
(c) Interface
(d) All of these

86. Architectural Design Metrics are __________ in nature.
(a) Black Box
(b) White Box
(c) Gray Box
(d) Green Box

87. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
(a) Reliability
(b) Usability
(c) Efficiency
(d) Functionality

88. What are attributes of good software?
(a) Software maintainability
(b) Software functionality
(c) Software development
(d) Software maintainability & functionality