Practice Set Papers on Homeopathy for Students

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Practice Set Papers on Homeopathy

1. The paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Hodgkins disease is:
(A) Nephrotic syndrome
(B) Retinopathy
(C) Cerebellar degenerative disease
(D) Acanthosis Nigricans

2. Loud S1 in Mitral Stenosis is caused 4 by:
(A) Prolonged flow through mitral valves
(B) 1st degree heart block
(C) Calcification of mitral valve
(D) Immobllization of mitral valve

3. A patient presents with melena, normal renal function, hypertension and mononeuritis multiplex. The most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Classical polyarteritis nodosa
(B) Microscopio polyangitis
(C) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
(D) Buerger’s disease

4. Specific test for gout is:
(A) Raised serum uric acid level
(B) Raised uric acid level in synovial fluid of joints
(C) Raised urea level
(D) Raised urease enzyme level

5. Life threatening complication of Diabetes mellitus are all EXCEPT:
(A) Malignant otitis externa
(B) Rhinocerebral mucormycosis
(C) Emphesematous pyelonephrilis
(D) Emphesematous appendicitis

6. Dancing carotid is seen in:
(A) Thyrotoxicosis
(B) Hypothyroidism
(C) AV fistula
(D) Blow out carotid

7. The most common feature Osteoporosis is:
(A) Compression fracture of spine
(B) Asymptomatic, detected incidentally by low serum calcium
(C) Bowing of legs
(D) Loss of weight

8. Ranson’s criteria for prognosis in Acute pancreatitis include all except:
(A) WBC > 16000 cells/cumm
(B) Age over 55 years
(C) AST > 250U/100 ml
(D) Serum amylase > 250 lU

9. Diarrhoea with acanthocytosis is seen in:
(A) Whipple’s disease
(B) Celiac sprue
(C) Wolman’s disease
(D) Ulcerative colitis

10. Hepatitis C virus is associated with:
(A) Anti LKM antibody
(B) Sclerodernfia
(C) Ciyoglobulinemaia
(D) Polyarteritis nodosa

11. Which of the following serum levels would help in distinguishing an acute liver disease from chronic liver disease?
(A) Aminotransaminase
(B) Alkaline Phosphatase
(C) Serum bilirubin
(D) Albumin

12. Pontine stroke is associated with all except:
(A) Bilateral pinpointpupils
(B) Pyrexia
(C) Vagal palsy
(D) Quadriparesis

13. The diagnosis of a patient presenting with Seizures, Mental retardation and Sebaceous adenoma is:
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Tuberoussclerosis
(C) Toxoplasmosis
(D) Down’s syndrorme

14. All the following statements, about Diffuse Axonal Injury are true EXCEPT:
(A) Caused by shearing force
(B) Predominant white matter haemorrhages in basal ganglion and corpus callosum
(C) Increase intracranial tension is seen in all the cases
(D) Most common at junction of grey and white matter

15. Recurrent Giardiasis is associated with:
(A) Severe combined immuno-deficiency
(B) Common variable immuno-deficiency
(C) Digeorge syndrome
(D) C 8 deficiency

16. Which of the following is characteristic of Diabetes mellitus?
(A) Encephalopathy
(B) Myelopathy
(C) Myopathy
(D) Retinopathy

17. Pseudo-dementia is seen in:
(A) Alcoholism
(B) Depression
(C) Schizophrenia
(D) Mania

18. The complication of 3 stage of labor is caused by:
(A) Retained placenta
(B) Obstruction of labor
(C) Rigid os
(D) Elderly Primigravida

19. The septate uterus is formed as a result of
(A) Fusion of mullerian duct
(B) Incomplete infusion of the duct
(C) Non-canalisation of the duct
(D) Non-resorption of median septum

20. The precise method of estimation of gestational age during 1st trimester is by measuring:
(A) Gestational sac
(B) Crown-rump length
(C) Bi-parietal diameter
(D) Femur length

21. The most common cause of PPH is:
(A) Uterine laceration
(B) Uterine atony
(C) Cervical laceration
(D) Vaginal laceration

22. Convelaire uterus is associated with:
(A) Placenta previa
(B) Abruptio-placenta
(C) Vasaprevia
(D) All of the above

23. Which of the following is not associated with Oligo-hydramnia?
(A) PROM
(B) IUGR
(C) Renal agenesis
(D) Down’s Syndrome

24. Which of the following is not a manifestation of pelvic relaxation?
(A) Uterine prolapse
(B) Procidentia
(C) Vaultprolapse
(D) Uterine retroversion

25. What type of abnormal bleeding is associated with Endometriosis?
(A) Menorrhagia
(B) Anovulatory bleeding
(C) Amenorrhoea
(D) Metropathia haemorrhagica

26. Corpus-luteal insufficiency can be diagnosed from:
(A) BBT
(B) Endometrial biopsy
(C) Progesterone assay
(D) None of the above

27. The most common indications of diagnostic laparoscopy in gynaecology is:
(A) Chronic pelvic pain
(B) Vaginal intra-epithelial neoplasia
(C) Genital malformation
(D) Gonadal abnormality

28. A young patient presents with History of Dysphagia more to liquid than solids. The first investigation you will do is:
(A) Barium Swallow
(B) Esophagoscopy
(C) Ultrasound of the Chest
(D) CT scan of the Chest

29. A Blood Stained Discharge from the nipple indicates:
(A) Breast abscess
(B) Fibrodenoma
(C) Duct papilloma
(D) Fat necrosis of breast

30. The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population is:
(A) Tongue
(B) Floor of Mouth
(C) Alveobuccal Complex
(D) Lip

31. Bedsore is an example of:
(A) Tropical Ulcer
(B) Trophic Ulcer
(C) Venous Ulcer
(D) Post Thrombotic Ulcer

32. A person is brought to the emergency as a case of road traffic accident. He is hypotensive. Most likely ruptured organ is:
(A) Spleen
(B) Mesentery
(C) Kidney
(D) Rectum

33. Brain Abscess may be due to:
(A) Chronic Som
(B) Chronic Lung Abscess
(C) Trauma
(D) None of the above

34. Pain in acute appendicitis is commonly referred to:
(A) Right shoulder
(B) Right groin
(C) Umbilicus
(D) External genitalia

35. Rectal bleeding in a child is likely to be:
(A) Fissure
(B) Polyp
(C) Proctitis
(D) Hemorrhoids

36. Under the WHO ‘Vision 2020’ programme, the SAFE strategy is adopted for which of the following diseases?
(A) Trachoma
(B) Glaucoma
(C) Diabetic retinopathy
(D) Onchocerciasis

37. A 45 years old woman presents with a hard and mobile lump in the breast, next investigation is:
(A) FNAC
(B) USG
(C) Mammography
(D) Excision Biopsy

38. In a 27 years old male most common cause of a colovesical fistula would be:
(A) Crohn’s disease
(B) Ulcerative Colitis
(C) TB
(D) Cancer Colon

39. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is:
(A) Marjolin’s
(B) Rodent
(C) Melanoma
(D) Curling’s

40. A male aged 60 years has foul breath. He regurgltates food that is catch 3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is:
(A) Zenker’s Diverticulum
(B) Meckel’s Diverticulum
(C) Scleroderma
(D) Achalsia Cardia

41. A 56 years old woman has not passed stools for the last 14 days. X-ray shows no air/fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is:
(A) Paralyticileus
(B) Aganglionosis of the colon
(C) Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
(D) Duodenal obstruction

42. A child presents with an expansible swelling on medial side of the nose. Likely Diagnosis is:
(A) Teratoma
(B) Meningocele
(C) Dermoid Cyst
(D) Lipoma

43. Identify the wrong statement:
(A) Early diagnosis and treatment is the intervention in secondary level of prevention.
(B) Vitamin A supplementation is an example of general health promotion in primary prevention.
(C) Lead time is the period between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means.
(D) Disability limitation is an intervention in tertiary level of prevention.

44. Which one is correct about vector borne transmissions?
(A) In mechanical type of transmission no multiplication but development of a causative agent in a vector can take place
(B) Malaria’ Transmission is an example of cyclo-developmental type of biological transmission
(C) Filariasis transmission is an example of cyclo-propagative type of biological transmission
(D) Plague transmission is an example of propagative type of biological transmission

45. Find out the wrong statement among the following:
(A) Chicken pox vesicles may form crust without going through the pustular stage.
(B) Mumps cases are maximum infectious just before and at the onset of parotitis.
(C) Post-Auricular and Cervical Lymphadonopathy appear before rash In Rubellal
(D) In measles Koplik’s Spots are pathognomonic of measles and appears in eruptive stage.

46. Which one is not a correct statement?
(A) Kerala is Filaria free
(B) Plasmodium malarae is reported in India from Karnataka only.
(C) Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) can be used for therapeutic as well as diagnostic purpose in lymphatic iilariasis.
(D) Secondary infection with Dengue serotype 2 or multiple infection with different serotypes lead to V severe form of Dengue, DHF (Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever) / DSS (Dengue Shock Syndrome).

47. Identify the incorrect statement:
(A) Tetanus is a disease in which herd immunity does not protect the individual.
(B) Lepra reactions are due to Lepromin Test.
(C) Contact tracing and cluster testing are used for control of STD/STI.
(D) A person who has recovered from Tetanus must be immunized against tetanus actively.

48. Which is not a method of assessment of obesity?
(A) Quetelefs Index
(B) Ponderal Index
(C) Gomez classification
(D) Skinfold thickness

49. Find out the wrong statement:
(A) Vitamin C, Vitamin E and Beta Carotene are examples of dietary oxidants.
(B) Coconut oil contains very high amount of saturated fatty acids.
(C) Vitamin B12 is not found in food of vegetable origin.
(D) Lactation demands about 550kcal/day.

50. Which one is a false statement?
(A) Among the pulses soyabean contain maximum fat and protein.
(B) Linoleic acid is the most essential fatty acid.
(C) Protein energy ratio is used for the assessment of protein quality.
(D) Alcohol supplies about 7 .kcal/gram of energy.