Practice Set on Computer Science and Engineering

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Computer Science and Engineering Practice Question Set

1. Block or Buffer caches are used
(a) to improve disk performance
(b) to handle interrupts
(c) to increase the capacity of main memory
(d) to speed up main memory read operation

2. An optimal scheduling algorithm in terms of minimizing the average waiting time of a given set of processes is ………….. .
(a) FCFS scheduling algorithm
(b) Round robin scheduling algorithm
(c) Shortest job – first scheduling algorithm
(d) None of these

3. Which of the following is contained in Process Control Block (PCB)?
(a) Process Number
(b) List of Open files
(c) Memory Limits
(d) All of these

4. The removal of process from active contention of CPU and reintroduce them into memory later is known as ____________.
(a) Interrupt
(b) Swapping
(c) Signal
(d) Thread

5. UDP packets have fixed-size header of ………. bytes.
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 32
(d) 64

6. If you use either Telnet or FTP, which is the highest layer you are using to transmit data?
(a) Application
(b) Session
(c) Transport
(d) Network

7. Choose the correct HTML tag for the largest heading?
(a) <H1>
(b) <H6>
(c) <H10>
(d) <HEAD>

8. What is the correct syntax in HTML for creating a link on a webpage?
(a) <LINK SRC= “abc.html”>
(b) <BODY LINK = “abc.html”>
(c) <A SRC = “def.html” >
(d) < A HREF = “def.html”>

9. <TD> … </TD> tag is used for ________
(a) Table heading
(b) Table Records
(c) Table row
(d) None of these

10. How can you make a bulleted list?
(a) <list>
(b) <nl>
(c) <ul>
(d) <ol>

11. Which of the following is the largest community in classification of e-commerce?
(a) Business to Business (B to B)
(b) Business to Consumer (B to C)
(c) Business to Government (B to G)
(d) Government to Government (G to G)

12. ……………… is simply the use of electronic means to transfer funds directly from one account to another, rather than by cheque or cash.
(a) M-Banking
(b) O-Banking
(c) E-Banking
(d) D-Banking

13. Default scripting language in ASP.
(a) EcmaScript
(b) VBScript
(c) PERL
(d) JavaScript

14. Which of the following address use 7 bits for the <network> and 24 bits for the <host> portion of the IP address.
(a) Class A
(b) Class B
(c) Class C
(d) Class D

15. Which of the transport layer protocols is connectionless oriented protocol?
(a) UDP
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) None of these

16. The loss of energy as the signal propagates outward.
(a) Attenuation
(b) Distortion
(c) Noise
(d) Baud

17. A protocol is a set of rules governing the communication that take place ____
(a) between an interface
(b) between peers
(c) between modems
(d) across an interface

18. Which of the following plays a major role in order to deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host?
(a) Port
(b) IP
(c) physical
(d) tunnel

19. End-to-end connectivity is provided from host-to-host in which of the following layer?
(a) session layer
(b) presentation layer
(c) transport layer
(d) network layer

20. You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?
(a) SMTP
(b) SNMP
(c) DHCP
(d) HTTP

21. The set of operations or language that the DBMS provides for retrieval, insertion, deletion and modification of data is called
(a) View definition language
(b) Storage definition language
(c) Data definition language
(d) Data manipulation language

22. The capacity to change the conceptual schema without having to change the external schemas is
(a) Schema data independence
(b) Logical data independence
(c) Physical data independence
(d) Model data independence

23. The constraint that specifies whether the existence of an entity depends on its being related to another entity via relationship type.
(a) Participation constraint
(b) Primary key constraint
(c) Entity types
(d) Data model

24. The following SQL command is used for adding new column in a table called employee.
(a) alter table employee add column address varchar(30);
(b) alter employee add column address varchar(30);
(c) update table employee add column address varchar(30);
(d) update employee add column address varchar(30);

25. SQL command update employee set address=’Zarkawt’ would result in
(a) Changing the column address of the first record in the employee table to Zarkawt.
(b) Changing the column address of the last record in the employee table to Zarkawt.
(c) Changing the column address of the current record in the employee table to Zarkawt.
(d) Changing the column address of all the records in the employee table to Zarkawt.

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26. One of the desirable properties of transaction processing is
(a) Composite attribute
(b) Cost based query optimization
(c) Atomicity
(d) Recurrence

27. If every transaction in the schedule reads only items that were written by committed transactions, then the schedule is said to be
(a) Cascadeless schedule
(b) Partial order
(c) Strict schedule
(d) Unstrict schedule

28. If timestamp (TS) TS(Ti)<TS(Tj), then (Ti older than Tj) Ti is allowed to wait; otherwise (Ti younger than Tj) abort Ti (Ti dies) and restart it later with the same timestamp. The rules mentioned above belong to which scheme.
(a) Wait-die
(b) Wound-wait
(c) Cautious waiting
(d) Wait-for graph

29. It distributes a relation into sets of tuples (rows)
(a) Vertical fragmentation
(b) Horizontal fragmentation
(c) Replication fragmentation
(d) Diagonal fragmentation

30. Consider the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:
EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER Primary Key
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)
Which of the statement insert row into the table EMPLOYEE?
(a) INSERT INTO employees VALUES ( NULL, ‘John’,‘Smith’);
(b) INSERT INTO employees( first_name, last_name) VALUES(‘John’,‘Smith’);
(c) INSERT INTO employees VALUES (‘1000’,‘John’,NULL);
(d) INSERT INTO employees(first_name,last_name, employee_id) VALUES (1000, ‘John’,‘Smith’);

31. Identify DML statement?
(a) CREATE
(b) UPDATE
(c) DELETE
(d) COMMIT

32. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced by a …………… constraint.
(a) Local Key
(b) Primary Key
(c) Composite Key
(d) Foreign Key

33. Deadlocks are possible only when one of the transactions wants to obtain a(n) ____ lock on a data item.
(a) binary
(b) exclusive
(c) shared
(d) Complete

34. The statement which is used to end a successful transaction is
(a) COMMIT
(b) DONE
(c) END
(d) QUIT

35. To delete a database which of the following command is used
(a) delete database database_name
(b) Delete database_name
(c) drop database database_name
(d) drop database_name

36. Checkpoints are used for the purpose of
(a) Recovery measures
(b) Security measures
(c) Concurrency measures
(d) Authorization measures

37. If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of other composite key, then we say that a relation is in
(a) 2NF
(b) 3NF
(c) BCNF
(d) 1NF

38. If two relations R and S are joined, then the non matching tuples of both R and S are ignored in
(a) left outer join
(b) right outer join
(c) full outer join
(d) inner join

39. Which of the following is not a recovery technique?
(a) Deferred update
(b) Immediate update
(c) Two-phase commit
(d) Shadow paging

40. The union of the sets {1, 2, 5} and {1, 2, 6} is the set __________
(a) {1, 2, 6, 1}
(b) {1, 2, 5, 6}
(c) {1, 2, 1, 2}
(d) {1, 5, 6, 3}

41. Which of the following statements for a simple graph is correct?
(a) Every path is a trail
(b) Every trail is a path
(c) Every trail is a path as well as every path is a trail
(d) None of these

42. What is the number of edges present in a complete graph having n vertices?
(a) (n*(n+1))/2
(b) (n*(n-1))/2
(c) n
(d) Information given is insufficient

43. Assume the R is a relation on a set A, aRb is partially ordered such that a and b are __________
(a) reflexive
(b) transitive
(c) symmetric
(d) reflexive and transitive

44. Which of the following is a not a part of 5-tuple finite automata?
(a) Input alphabet
(b) Transition function
(c) Initial State
(d) Output Alphabet

45. The O/P of Mealy machine can be represented in the following format:
(a) Op(t)= d(Op(t))
(b) Op(t)= d(Op(t)i(t))
(c) Op(t): S
(d) None of these

46. When are 2 finite states equivalent?
(a) Same number of transitions
(b) Same number of states
(c) Same number of states as well as transitions
(d) Both are final states

47. Can a DFA recognize a palindrome number?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, with input alphabet as S*
(d) Can’t be determined

48. The Grammar can be defined as: G=(V, S, p, S)
In the given definition, what does S represents?
(a) Accepting State
(b) Starting Variable
(c) Sensitive Grammar
(d) None of these

49. Which of the following statements are correct for a concept called inherent ambiguity in CFL?
(a) Every CFG for L is ambiguous
(b) Every CFG for L is unambiguous
(c) Every CFG is also regular
(d) None of these

50. The set of all Equivalence classes of a set A of cardinality C
(a) forms a partition of A
(b) is of cardinality 2C
(c) has the same cardinality as A
(d) none of these