Clinical Research Interview Questions

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Interview Questions on Clinical Research

1. CA 125 is a marker for:
(a) Ovarian Carcinoma
(b) Breast Carcinoma
(c) Soft tissue sarcoma
(d) Malanoma

2. All of the following are true for Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) except:
(a) It functions in iodine uptake and thyroxine metabolism
(b) High TSH values are observed in primary hypothyroidism
(c) High TSH values are observed in primary hyperthyroidism
(d) Its determination aids in avoiding under treatment of hypothyroidism and over treatment of hyperthyroidism

3. A substance present in or produced by a tumor or by the tumor’s host in response to the tumor and used to determine the presence of a tumor based on its measurement in the blood or serum is known as:
(a) Tumor Markers
(b) Carcinogens
(c) Chemokines
(d) Oncoproteins

4. Jendrassik – Grof Method is used for
(a) Hormonal Assay
(b) Determination of serum bilirubin on autoanalysers
(c) Determination of Thyroid profile on autoanalysers
(d) Plasma glucose determination

5. Urine specific gravity test is used to determine the:
(a) Concentrating power of the kidneys
(b) Acid-base balance
(c) Concentration of free particles in urine
(d) Glomerular filtration rate(GFR)

6. In hemolytic jaundice, van der Bergh reaction is:
(a) Indirect positive
(b) Direct positive
(c) Biphasic
(d) Negative

7. The exogenous substance used to measure glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is
(a) Hippuric acid
(b) Inulin
(c) Creatinine
(d) AzureA-resin

8. The compound implicated in the development of cataract in diabetic patients is:
(a) Phosphofructokinase
(b) Glucagon
(c) Sorbitol
(d) Glucosamine

9. Factors responsible for the multiplication of pathogens include all except:
(a) Capsule secretion
(b) Possession of pili
(c) Endotoxin production
(d) Plasmids

10. The Laminar flow Workstations operate by:
(a) Drawing ambient air, under negative pressure into the top of unit
(b) Drawing ambient air, under positive pressure into the bottom of unit
(c) Use of a fan mounted under the cabinet to draw a curtain of sterile air over the products handled
(d) Fractional sterilization procedure

11. Electron microscopy can resolve viruses with diameter of
(a) 0.01mm to 0.2 mm
(b) 0.001mm to 0.02 mm
(c) 0.01 to 0.002 mm
(d) infinite

12. The Lac Operon consists of following genes
(a) Regulatory gene and promoter gene
(b) Regulatory gene, promoter gene and two structural genes
(c) Regulatory gene, promoter gene and operator gene
(d) Regulatory gene, promoter gene, operator gene and three structural genes

13. The PCR protocol includes all except
(a) Ligase chain reaction
(b) DNA extraction from a specific source
(c) Denaturation of DNA
(d) Annealing the primers to the DNA

14. Bioinformatics tools are used to
(a) To confirm delirious nature of a non-sense mutation
(b) To confirm delirious nature of a mis-sense mutation
(c) To confirm delirious nature of a polymorphism
(d) To confirm delirious nature of large deletions

15. In Gene cloning, DNA molecule under test is fragmented by using
(a) Enzyme restriction endonucleases
(b) Annealing enzymes
(c) DNA polymerase enzyme
(d) RNAase enzyme

16. R-banding technique is used to
(a) Determine if a chromosome has two centromeres
(b) Rapid identification of Y chromosome
(c) Evaluate constitutive heterochromatin
(d) Detect telomeres as dark bands

17. Dedifferentiation of normal cells during tumorigenesis is known as
(a) Anaplasia
(b) Dysplasia
(c) Metaplasia
(d) Tumor lysis

18. What nucleic acid does in situ hybridization stain?
(a) Protein
(b) DNA
(c) RNA
(d) Both RNA and DNA

19. When used in in situ hybridization, RNA probes are _______ to the sample’s RNA.
(a) Complementary
(b) Identical
(c) Supplementary
(d) Similar

20. The function of genes can be determined by
(a) Exon trapping
(b) Northern analysis
(c) Homology search
(d) Zoo-blotting

21. Fluoresence in situ hybridization (FISH)
(a) Requires a labelled probe
(b) Is used in genetic mapping of genomes
(c) Requires deoxynucleotides
(d) Requires DNA polymerase

22. Chromosome walking
(a) Can be done by PCR
(b) Is used in genetic mapping
(c) Occurs in mitosis
(d) Can be used to close physical sequence gaps

23. Phase 1 of a clinical research is designed to assess
(a) Safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug
(b) To demonstrate the clinical efficacy of a drug
(c) Effectiveness of the drug and its value in clinical practice
(d) Involve the drug safety surveillance (pharmacovigilance)

24. A type of clinical trial that studies the side effects caused over time by a new treatment after it has been approved and is on market
(a) Phase 1 clinical trial
(b) Phase 4 clinical trial
(c) Phase 2 clinical trial
(d) Phase 3 clinical trial

25. A study in which neither the research team nor the participants are aware of which group patients were assigned to is
(a) Single- blinded study
(b) Open-label study
(c) Double- blinded study
(d) Cross-over trial

26. The utility of immunohistochemistry includes all except
(a) Categorization of undifferentiated tumors
(b) Screening of cancer
(c) Determination of site of origin of metastatic tumors
(d) Detection of molecules that have prognostic or therapeutic significance

27. HPV types most commonly associated with cervical carcinoma are
(a) 16 and 18
(b) 6 and 11
(c) 12 and 11
(d) 6 and 17

28. Examination of all chromosomes in a single experiment can be done by
(a) RT-PCR
(b) FISH
(c) Mass Spectroscopy
(d) Spectral Karyotyping

29. The use of drugs to target specific genes and proteins that are involved in the growth and survival of cancer cells is known as:
(a) Chemoprophylaxis
(b) Neo-adjuvant therapy
(c) Targeted therapy
(d) Palliative therapy

30. The basic cancer treatment modalities include all except:
(a) Stem cell transplant
(b) Chemotherapy
(c) Radiation Therapy
(d) Targeted therapy

31. All are tumour suppressor genes involved in human neoplasm except
(a) PTEN gene
(b) BRCA 1 and 2 gene
(c) RB gene
(d) KRAS gene

32. All are oncogenic viruses except
(a) Human Papillomavirus
(b) Epstein-Barr virus
(c) Varicella-Zoster virus
(d) Human herpesvirus 8

33. The epigenetic inheritance system has been described as
(a) Genotype inheritance
(b) Soft inheritance
(c) RNA inheritance
(d) Hard inheritance

34. Reversible, heritable changes in gene expression that occur without mutation is known as
(a) Epigenetics
(b) Genetic engineering
(c) Gene amplification
(d) Microsatellite instability

35. What does a viral DNA becomes after being associated with a bacterial chromosome
(a) Plasmid
(b) Plaque
(c) Prophage
(d) Gene

36. The bacterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineering is
(a) Escherichia
(b) Klebsiella
(c) Proteus
(d) Serratia

37. Mc Fadyean reaction is used to detect
(a) Bacillus anthracis
(b) Brucella
(c) Corynaebacterium
(d) Mycobacterium

38. The extracellular infectious form of a virus is called
(a) Capsid
(b) Nucleocapsid
(c) Prion
(d) Virion

39. A mutation causing a substitution of one amino acid is called
(a) Point mutation
(b) Silent mutation
(c) Missense mutation
(d) Driver mutation

40. DNA finger printing is based on
(a) Repetitive sequences
(b) Unique sequences
(c) Amplified sequences
(d) Non-coding sequences

41. All are variants of SARS-CoV-2 except
(a) B.1.1.7
(b) B.1.617.2
(c) B.1.1.529
(d) B.1.214

42. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar
(a) Maltose
(b) Lactulose
(c) Trehalose
(d) Cellobiose

43. First discovered amino acid is
(a) Asparagine
(b) Aspartate
(c) Glutamate
(d) Glutamine

44. In anion exchange chromatography,
(a) The column contains negatively charged beads where positively charged proteins bind
(b) The column contains both positive and negatively charged beads where protein bind depending on their net charge
(c) The column contains positively charged beads where negatively charged proteins binds
(d) All of the above

45. Blastoma is a cancer involving which tissue
(a) Bones
(b) Embryonic tissue
(c) Connective tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue

46. Which is the most reliable type of observational study for investigating the link between diet and cancer
(a) Randomized controlled trial
(b) Prospective study
(c) Ecological study
(d) Case-control study

47. Arrange the following sequences of tumor development in the correct order
(1) Metastasis
(2) Progression
(3) Promotion
(4) Initiation
(a) 2,3,4,1
(b) 4,3,2,1
(c) 1,2,3,4
(d) 1,3,4,2

48. If DNA is damaged, which of the following gene arrest cell cycle
(a) p53
(b) Rb
(c) Hedgehog receptor
(d) p16

49. Progressive loss of body fat and lean body mass in individuals with cancer is known as
(a) Cachexia
(b) Paraneoplastic syndrome
(c) Myasthenia
(d) Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

50. SARS –CoV-2 is a
(a) Single stranded DNA virus
(b) Single stranded RNA virus
(c) Double stranded DNA virus