Paediatric Surgery Quiz

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Quiz on Paediatric Surgery

1. Fibrinolytic treatment of empyema is advocated in.
(1) Phase I
(2) Phase II
(3) Phase III
(4) Never used due to danger of anaphylaxis

2. Three most common sites for or Germinoma in Paediatric population are
(1) Neck, posterior mediastinum, abdomen
(2) ovary, anterior mediastinum, pineal region
(3) Testis, middle mediastinum, perineal region
(4) Testis and ovary

3. Alternative use of appendix has been found in
(1) Spina bifida
(2) Malrotation
(3) ARM
(4) Hirschprung disease

4. What is incorrect regarding nontraumatic chylothorax
(1) Occurs in newborns
(2) It is caused by spontaneous disorders.
(3) It is caused by benign and malignant neoplasm
(4) It is caused by inflammatory diseases

5. Chronic obstructive lung disease with pancreatic exocrine deficiency and abnormally high sweat electrolyte concentration indicates which disease.
(1) Cystic fibrosis
(2) Meconium ileus
(3) Pancreatic and duodenal tumor
(4) All of the above

6. What best describes the pathophysiology of respiratory failure in a newborn of congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(1) Hypercarbia, acidosis, pulmonary hypertension, persistent fetal circulation with left to mght shunting
(2) Hypoxaemia, acidosis, pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction, persistent fetal circulation with right to left shunting.
(3) Hypoxaemia, hypercarbia, left ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary hypertension with fetal circulation and right to left shunting
(4) Hypercarbia, alkalosis,pulmonary hypertension, persistant fetal circulation with left to right shunting.

7. Acquired Indications for Oesophagus replacement are
(1) Pure esophageal atresia
(2) Corrosive stricture
(3) Long gap esophageal atresia
(4) All of the above

8. The principles for surgical procedure for Gastroesophageal Reflux include all except.
(1) Lengthening of intra-abdominal esophagus
(2) Decrease in pressure barrier at esophagogastric junction
(3) Approximation of crura
(4) Accentuation of the angle of His

9. What is true for familial adenomatous polyposis coli
(1) Hereditary disorder
(2) Premalignant adenomatous polyps of colon develop
(3) It is a autosomal dominant disorder
(4) All of the above

10. What is not true for Pyloric Stenosis
(1) It is diagnosed best by ultrasound signs the string sign and shoulder sign
(2) Deep palpation to right of midline reveals the pyloric olive
(3) Muscle thickness greater than 4mm and pyloric canal length greater than 17mm is-diagnostic
(4) Conservative management possible

11. Hunt Lawrence pouch is used as
(1) Gastric reservoir
(2) Rectal reservoir
(3) Colonic reservoir
(4) It isa variety of Pouch Colon

12. Predisposing factors for lung abscess in children include
(1) Nephropathy
(2) Mental retardation
(3) Pneumonia
(4) All of the above

13. Most common type of polypoid lesion in gastrointestinal tract found in children are
(1) Juvenile polyps
(2) Peutz- Jeghers polyps
(3) Cowden syndrome
(4) Hyperplastic polyps

14. Rule of 2 is cited for
(1) Intussusception
(2) Appendix
(3) Meckel’s diverticulum
(4) Anorectal malformation

15. What is true for duplication of oesophagus.
(1) Found in anterior mediastinum
(2) They usually communicate with lumen of oesophagus
(3) They can communicate with the small intestine
(4) Usually asymptomatic

16. Anomalies like double external genitalia, septate bladder, imperforate anus are found in association with
(1) Gastric duplication
(2) Tubular hind gut duplication
(3) Cystic hind gut duplication
(4) Tubular and cystic foregut duplication

17. Total urogenital mobilization is a technique used for repair of
(1) Common cloaca
(2) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

18. Presence of single perineal opening with pelvic mass most likely indicates the following diagnosis
(1) Disorder of sexual development
(2) Common cloaca
(3) Perianal fistula
(4) Prune belly

19. What injuries are least possible while operating for intermediate and high anorectal malformations
(1) Urethral
(2) Urinary Bladder
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Testis

20. The abnormal embryogenesis of cloacal exstrophy is best represented by
(1) The caudal displacement theory
(2) The wedge effect theory
(3) Caudal displacement and wedge effect theory
(4) random disorder, is not explained by any theory

21. Fissure in ano is commonly found in which age group
(1) Toddlers
(2) 2-3 years
(3) 3 to 5 years
(4) 5 to 7 years

22. Approximately one third of the recurrent intussusception occur within
(1) Within one day
(2) Within one month
(3) Within one year
(4) Reference is not found

23. Advantages of a posterior mediastinal route for esophageal replacement are all except
(1) Most direct route
(2) Ease of procedure
(3) Organ contained in mediastinum
(4) Little or no compression of lung

24. What is not correct with respect to bronchogenic cyst
(1) Can be located centrally or peripherally
(2) Central cyst are multiple and usually symptomatic
(3) Can present as solid or air filled lesion also
(4) Surgical excision can be done even when asymptomatic

25. What is true regarding growth of a full term newborn
(1) loses 10% of weight in first 7 to 10 days of life.
(2) Loses 25% of weight in first 7 to 10 days of life.
(3) Grows @ of 10 grams/day in first 7-10 days
(4) Maintains weight in first 10 days of life and then starts gaining weight

26. Hemoglobin dissociation curve is
(1) Bell shaped
(2) S shaped
(3) L-shaped
(4) Inverted V-shaped

27. Which of the following is incorrect
(1) PaCO2 is a reflection of gas exchange in lungs and of metabolic rate
(2) Measurement of PaCO2 is a method to assess adequacy of ventilation
(3) Capnography is a non-invasive means of monitoring PCO2
(4) Sensor for capnometry is in the ventilator or monitor

28. Which statement is true regarding Central venous catheters for TPN
(1) Should be placed in aseptic conditions, blood should be drawn carefully without spillage
(2) Blood products and medicines should be given carefully to avoid air embolism.
(3) Fungal sepsis is common with Candida sp. as one of the most common organism isolated
(4) Hypoglycemia, increase in fatty acids and hypermagnesemia are known metabolic complications

29. What is incorrect regarding pneumoperitoneum induced during minimal invasive surgery
(1) Causes a decrease in functional residual capacity
(2) Ventilation perfusion mismatch
(3) Decrease in air way resistance with increase in compliance
(4) Risk of barotrauma with positive pressure ventilation

30. What is incorrect regarding Carbon dioxide used for pneumoperitoneum
(1) It is absorbed readily from the peritoneum which causes increase in pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
(2) It has direct as well as indirect effect on cardiovascular system
(3) It is a colourless, non toxic, non inflammable gas
(4) High chance of Venous embolism

31. What is not correct about stray current
(1) Itis result of insulation failure
(2) result of direct coupling
(3) Result of Capacitance coupling
(4) Result of use of double cautery

32. What is incorrect recording Ligasure
(1) It is bipolar electrosurgical hemostatic device
(2) It uses ultrasonic waves to achieve hemostasis
(3) It seals the lumen of blood vessel up to 7mm in diameter
(4) It automatically cuts of the output once the seal is complete

33. Frequently used lasers in operative procedures are all except
(1) Argon laser
(2) Potassium Titany! phosphate (KTP)
(3) Nd:YAG
(4) Carbon laser

34. Which of these fetal surgeries can be achieved by minimal access
(1) Vesicostomy
(2) Vesico amniotic shunt
(3) Resection of sacro coccygeal teratoma
(4) Debulk of sacrococcygeal teratoma

35. Current application of robotic surgery can be e divided into
(1) Image guided robots and tele manipulators
(2) G robots with sensor guided modulators
(3) Sensor robots and precision devices
(4) Image modulators and sensor robots

36. The first ever invasive radiological procedure was performed by
(1) Dr Werner Forssman on his own brachial artery
(2) Doctor Cope on his wife’s Femoral Vein
(3) Dr Seldinger on Femoral vein of his patient
(4) Doctor Template on Brachial artery of his patient

37. Virtual reality is a concept useful for
(1) Bloodless surgery
(2) Telemedicine
(3) Training and skill development
(4) Robotic surgery

38. What is incorrect regarding hydrocephalus
(1) Choroid plexus papilloma causes overproduction of CSF
(2) Venous sinus occlusion can cause impaired absorption
(3) Aqueductal stenosis is a X linked disorder
(4) Diseases of arachnoid villi can cause overproduction

39. Clean intermittent catheterization was described by
(1) Lapides et al in 1972
(2) Crede in 1982
(3) Hinman in 1972
(4) Van Gool in 1982

40. Hypospadias cripple is defined as a patient
(1) Hypospadias repair has not been done
(2) A variety which will require multiple repairs
(3) In whom multiple repairs have failed
(4) Hypospadias with disorder of sexual dysfunction.

41. 46XX, Symmetrical gonads, electrolyte imbalance, high androgen levels, are suggestive of
(1) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
(2) True hermaphrodite
(3) Pseudo hermaphrodite
(4) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

42. 15 year female 46XX, normal secondary sexual characters presents with primary amenorrhoea is likely to be
(1) Mayer Rokitansky Syndrome
(2) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
(3) Pseudo hermaphrodite
(4) Cloaca

43. Which statement is not correct
(1) Ductus arteriosus extends from left pulmonary artery to descending aorta
(2) Patent ductus arteriosus closes at birth
(3) Ligamentum arteriosum is a remnant of patent ductus arteriosus
(4) Blood from patent ductus arteriosus passes through pulmonary circulation to heart.

44. Cono ventricular VSD is a defect of
(1) Membranous septum
(2) Muscular septum
(3) Both in muscular and membranous septum
(4) Multiple defects

45. What is correct regarding anatomy of exstrophy epispadias complex
(1) Prepuce is absent neurovascular bundle is placed ventrally
(2) Prepuce is placed ventrally and neurovascular bundle lie lateral to urethral plate
(3) Prepuce is placed dorsally and neurovascular bundle lies dorsally
(4) Neurovascular bundle is atretic and prepuce is ventral