Nursing Pharmacology Questions and Answers

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Pharmacology Questions and Answers for Nursing

1. A 20 yr old female weighing 55kg is admitted to the emergency department having consumed 10 g of paracetamol together with alcohol 6 hrs earlier. A serum paracetamol level is reported as 400 micrograms/ml. Which of the following is correct with respect to this?
(1) Gastric lavage is mandatory
(2) Administration of activated charcoal
(3) Abnormalities of the kidney function are likely to be present
(4) Hepatotoxicity is likely to occur

2. NSAID lacking anti-inflammatory action is
(1) Paracetamol
(2) Ibuprofen
(3) Diclofenac sodium
(4) Celecoxib

3. Most common dose limiting adverse effect of colchicine is
(1) Sedation
(2) Kidney damage
(3) Diarrhoea
(4) Muscle paralysis

4. The antidote of choice in paracetamol poisoning is
(1) Flumazenil
(2) Sodium bicarbonate
(3) N-Acetylcysteine
(4) Methylene Blue

5. Which of the following is not a bronchodilator drug?
(1) Beta2-adrenergic agonists
(2) Anticholinergics
(3) Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICSs)
(4) Theophylline

6. Which of the following LABAs is given once daily?
(1) Salmeterol
(2) Formoterol
(3) Indacaterol
(4) All of the above

7. Therapeutic plasma concentration of theophylline is?
(1) 5-15 µg/mL
(2) 20-40 µg /mL
(3) 5-15 µg /mL
(4) 20-40 µg /mL

8. Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect
(1) Itis less potent
(2) It is shorter acting
(3) It does not have anti-androgenic action
(4) It produces more CNS side effects

9. The most efficacious drug for inhibiting round the clock gastric acid output is
(1) Omeprazole
(2) Cimetidine
(3) Pirenzepine
(4) Misoprostol

10. In peptic ulcer, antacids are now primarily used for
(1) Prompt pain relief
(2) Ulcer healing
(3) Preventing ulcer relapse
(4) Control of bleeding from the ulcer

11. Which of the following is a common side effect of ticagrelor?
(1) Pruritis
(2) Dysgeusia
(3) Dyspnea
(4) Diarrhoea

12. Which of the following is an inhibitor of Protease-Activated Receptor (PAR-1)
(1) Cangrelor
(2) Rivaroxaban
(3) Apixaban
(4) Vorapaxar

13. What is the mean molecular weight of heparin?
(1) 15,000
(2) 20,000
(3) 25,000
(4) 30,000

14. 1 mg of protamine sulfate neutralizes how many units of heparin?
(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 300
(4) 400

15. Which of the following is a fibrin- specific plasminogen activators?
(1) Streptokinase
(2) Alteplase
(3) Anistreplase
(4) Urokinase

16. What is the mean molecular weight of LMWH?
(1) 4000
(2) 5000
(3) 6000
(4) 7500

17. Which of the following is an anti-metabolite?
(1) Methotrexate
(2) Cyclosporine
(3) Etoposide
(4) Vinlastine

18. Treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease is
(1) Intravenous immunoglobulin
(2) Steroids
(3) Azathioprine
(4) Aspirin

19. A patient is given tacrolimus, which antibiotic should not be given to him?
(1) Gentamicin
(2) Cisplatin
(3) Cyclosporine
(4) Vancomycin

20. A 50 Year old male, Ram lal suffering from renal failure, underwent kidney transplant. He was prescribed a nucleotide derivative following the organ transplant. The nucleotide derivative of therapeutic importance in this organ transplant is
(1) Azathioprine
(2) 5-Fluorouracil
(3) Cytarabine
(4) Allopurinol

21. Most commonly used immunosuppressants are
(1) Glucocorticoids
(2) Cyclosporine
(3) Tacrolimus
(4) Methotrexate

22. BCG is used for
(1) Treatment of tuberculosis
(2) Treatment of superficial bladder cancer
(3) Treatment of anthrax
(4) All of the above

23. Etanercept used in rheumatoid arthritis act by the inhibition of
(1) TNF alpha
(2) TFG beta
(3) IL-2
(4) IL-6

24. Tacrolimus acts by inhibiting
(1) DNA and RNA synthesis
(2) Anti lymphocyte antibody formation
(3) T-Cell proliferation
(4) All of the above

25. Bevacizumab is used in
(1) Metastatic colorectal cancer
(2) Glaucoma
(3) Diabetic nephropathy
(4) Neuropathy

26. Term ‘endocrine’ was coined by?
(1) Jameson
(2) Smith
(3) Starling
(4) Keith

27. Antipseudomonas penicilliiis
(1) Mezlocillin
(2) Ampicillin
(3) Clavulanic acid
(4) Sulbactam

28. A patient of diabetes and hypertension comes to your clinic. As a doctor, you explain to him the risks of various complications. Which of these is the best tool to demonstrate the complications?
(1) Pie Chart
(2) Histogram
(3) Scatterplot
(4) Venn diagram

29. Which of these is the best study to evaluate effect and outcome?
(1) Clinical trial
(2) Cohort
(3) Case control study
(4) Cross sectional study

30. Some medicines come with a label of ‘store at cool place only’. What should be the temperature °?
(1) 8-15 °C
(2) 2-8 °C
(3) 0°C
(4) 25-2 °C

31. If a drug does not cure the disease but increases survival of the patient, its use would lead to :
(1) Decreased incidence
(2) Decreased prevalence
(3) Increased Incidence
(4) Increased prevalence

32. Which of these is not true about randomization in a clinical trial?
(1) Reduces confounding
(2) Decreases selection bias
(3) Ensures comparability of two groups
(4) Increases external validity of the trail

33. Most cost effective method of infection control is:
(1) Handwashing
(2) Alcohol based rubbing
(3) Prophylactic antibiotic therapy
(4) Repeated disinfectant use

34. According to the new WHO 2013 malaria treatment guidelines which of : the following statements is true :
(1) Presumptive treatment — with 3 choloroqunie should be given
(2) Primaquine is to be given for 7 days
(3) No ACT in falciparum malaria
(4) Primaquine is contraindicated in infants and pregnant women

35. Which of the following drugs does not affect DNA synthesis?
(1) Rifampicin
(2) Linezolid
(3) Nitrofurantoin
(4) Metronidazole

36. What does low volume of distribution of a drug mean?
(1) Low bioavailability
(2) Does not accumulates in tissues
(3) Low absorption
(4) Not metabolized in the body

37. Which of the following drugs is not used in treatment of bird flu?
(1) Oseltamivir
(2) Ribavirin
(3) Zanamivir
(4) Peramivir

38. What are the appropriate instructions to be given while prescribing bisphosphonates to a patient?
(1) To be given empty stomach with a glass of water
(2) Taken along with food
(3) Stop if features of gastritis develop
(4) Stop if bone pains occur

39. Which one of the following is a gender specific side effect of valproate?
(1) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
(2) Alopecia
(3) Weight loss
(4) Tremor

40. Which of the following drugs is not used in detoxification of chronic alcoholic?
(1) Flumazenil
(2) Disulfiram
(3) Acamprosate
(4) Naltrexone

41. Drugs prescribed by registered medical practitioners mostly fall under which class of drugs?
(1) Schedule X
(2) Schedule S
(3) Schedule H
(4) Schedule P

42. Which of these drugs is a calcineurin inhibitor?
(1) Cyclosporine
(2) Methotrexate
(3) Azathioprine
(4) Mycophenolate mofetil

43. Platelet aggregation is blocked by aspirin due to its action on —
(1) Prostacyclin
(2) PGF 2 alpha
(3) Thromboxane A2
(4) Phospholipase C

44. Which of these is a new oral drug used in treatment of chronic Hepatitis C-.
(1) Interferon alpha
(2) Ledipasvir
(3) Oseltamivir
(4) Lamivudine

45. The reason behind post dural puncture headache is?
(1) Adverse effects of drugs
(2) Injury to nerve roots
(3) Fine needle
(4) Seepage of CSF