Leprosy MCQ

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Leprosy MCQ

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MCQ on Leprosy

1. With adenocarcinoma of pancrease diagnosed a patient has highest risk of developing which cutaneous paraneoplastic phenomenon ?
(1) Florid cutaneous papillomatosis
(2) Angiomaserpinginosa
(3) Necrolytic migratory crythema
(4) Migratory thrombophlebitis

2. Oral / perianal lentiginosesand GI polyp is commonly seen in :
(1) Carney complex
(2) Cowden syndrome
(3) Peutzjegher syndrome
(4) Cronkite syndrome

3. Pseudo-porphyria is seen with
(1) End stage renal failure
(2) Pyelonephrosis
(3) Renal vein thrombosis
(4) Hemodialysis

4. Keratinocyte chemo attractant for pagets disease is
(1) Interleukin 8
(2) TNF beta
(3) Heregulin
(4) Hemoglobin

5. Howelevans syndrome includes PPKD and
(1) Trichostasis
(2) Tylosis
(3) Tychotrophicporokeratosis
(4) Telon noir

6. Hilarlymphadenopathy is called Lofgren syndrome if it is associated with
(1) Erythema multiforme
(2) Papularsarcoid of face
(3) Parotid involvement
(4) Erythema nodosum

7. Hypohidrosis and paroxysms of burning hands and angiomacorposum are features of
(1) Glycogen storage disease
(2) Sphingolipidoses
(3) Mucoplysaccharidoses
(4) None

8. LAMB stands for all except ?
(1) Myxoma
(2) Blue nevi
(3) Lentigines
(4) Axial neuroma

9. Salycilic acid is derived from
(1) Sugarcane
(2) Citrus fruits
(3) Ethanol
(4) Phenol

10. First solid laser that was devised was
(1) Alexandrite
(2) ND:Yag
(3) Erb: Yag
(4) Ruby

11. Exogenous ochronoses is caused due to
(1) Chloroquine
(2) Hydroquinone
(3) Alpha hydroxyl acids
(4) Retinoids

12. Natural anti-oxidant of muscle and brain is
(1) Phenyalanine
(2) Carnosine
(3) Curcumin
(4) Tryptophan

13. Most common adverse reaction to any filler
(1) Nodule
(2) Avascular areas
(3) Atrophy
(4) Hemorrhage

14. Which of these are superficial peel ?
(1) 70% glycolic
(2) Baker Gordon phenol
(3) TCA 35%
(4) TCA 25%

15. Which of these lasers has a wavelength of 755 nm ?
(1) Alexandrite
(2) KTP
(3) Ruby
(4) Nd:yag

16. The concept of popsiclepanniculitis is utilized in
(1) Cryolipolysis
(2) Cryotherapy
(3) Cryo ablation
(4) RF ablation

17. First working laser was built in 1960 by
(1) Theodore Roosevelt
(2) Theodore Maiman
(3) Theodore Nott
(4) Theodore Finch

18. Susceptibility factor in leprosy is
(1) TAPI gene
(2) TNFa gene
(3) IL17 gene
(4) IFNg gene

19. Distinct feature of lepromatous leprosy is
(1) Normal CMI
(2) Macrophage granuloma
(3) Epitheloid cells
(4) Naked granuloma with reticulin

20. Pseudocapsule in histopathology is a feature of
(1) Lazarine leprosy
(2) Histoid leprosy
(3) Endemic leprosy
(4) Leprosy bonita

21. Leonine face is seen in all except ?
(1) Tuberculoid leprosy
(2) Pagets disease of bone
(3) Mucinoses
(4) Sarcoid

22. Madarosis as a feature of leprosy is also seen in
(1) Hypogonadism
(2) Hypoparathyroidism
(3) Folliculotropic MF
(4) Lichen scleroses

23. At the junction of medial one third and lateral two third of eyebrows which of these nerves are palpated ?
(1) Supratrochlear
(2) Supraorbital
(3) Ciliary
(4) None

24. To give an index of Zero BI how many microscopic fields should be checked ?
(1) 10
(2) 10-100
(3) 100
(4) 1000

25. Dapsone resistance gene is
(1) Folp1
(2) Rpo
(3) Mdr
(4) Dpt

26. Beading and opacification of corneal nerves is universally seen in
(1) Borderline tuberculoid
(2) Tuberculoid leprosy
(3) Lepromatous leprosy
(4) Lazarine leprosy

27. Minimum required Dosage of Dapsone (100 mg) for Dapsone Hypersensitivity reaction ?
(1) One month
(2) One week
(3) One day
(4) One year

28. Which of the following situation is corticosteroids contra indicated ?
(1) Leprosy neuritis
(2) Leprosy corneal ulcer
(3) Leprosy in pregnancy
(4) Reactions of leprosy in children

29. In absence of lactobacilli, the vaginal Ph is maintained by
(1) Glycogen
(2) Glycolic acid
(3) Lactoferrin
(4) Lycopene

30. Which of these mutation is protective from HIV infection ?
(1) CCR5
(2) CXCR4
(3) CCL3
(4) MIPIB

31. Most immunogenic region of HIV ?
(1) Gp4
(2) Gpl20
(3) CCRS
(4) Vp3

32. Primary LGV can take all these forms except ?
(1) Papule
(2) Erosion
(3) Herpetiform ulcer
(4) Bubo

33. The pre antibiotic era of chancre which healed spontaneously is called
(1) Chancre redux
(2) Chancre mou Volant
(3) Chancre leukoderma
(4) Bejel

34. Strawberry cervix is the eponym for
(1) Contact cervicitis to latex
(2) Colpitismacularis
(3) Chronic vulvovaginitis
(4) Navicularabscess

35. Bulbourethral glands are called
(1) Cowper gland
(2) Littoral gland
(3) Bartholin
(4) Pectinate glands

36. Higoumenaki sign known for changes seen in inner ends of clavicle is seen in
(1) Primary syphilis
(2) Secondary syphilis
(3) Tertiary syphilis
(4) Congenital syphilis

37. Longitudinal melanonychia is an adverse effect of
(1) Didanosine
(2) Zidovudine
(3) Tenofovir
(4) Efavirenz

38. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor of the following
(1) Didanosine
(2) Etravirine
(3) Tenofovir
(4) Enfuvirtide

39. Syphilitic melanoleucoderma is also known as
(1) Collar of Venus
(2) Rings of Venus
(3) Melanoma Associated Leucoderma
(4) Casal’s necklace

40. Definition for serological response
(1) 2 fold decrease in titre from baseline
(2) 4 fold decrease in titre from baseline
(3) Reverse to zero
(4) 8 fold decrease from baseline

41. Gold standard in diagnosis for early syphilis
(1) VDRL
(2) DGM
(3) TPHA
(4) TPPA

42. Yaws is caused by
(1) Treponema Carateum
(2) T.p. pertenue
(3) T.p. pallidum
(4) Borreliarecurrentis

43. Which of the following is not a DDx for molluscumcontagiosum ?
(1) Histoplasma
(2) Blastomyces
(3) Cryptococcus
(4) Alternaria

44. Embryological development of skin is by
(1) Early gastrula
(2) Prospective mesoderm
(3) Both of the above
(4) None of the above

45. Which of the following is a component of lamina densa ?
(1) Keratin 5
(2) Keratin 14
(3) Type 4 collagen
(4) Laminin 5

46. The sensitive and specific marker of Langerhans cells is
(1) Langerin
(2) S100
(3) CD163
(4) Actin

47. Selectin is a glycoprotein that is dependent on
(1) Sodium
(2) Potassium
(3) Calcium
(4) Chloride

48. Natural killer cells orginate from
(1) Langerhans cells
(2) Lymph nodes
(3) Bone marrow
(4) None of the above

49. Major histocompatibility complex is located on
(1) Chromosome
(2) Chromosome 6
(3) Chromosome 11
(4) Chromosome 12

50. The chronological order of cells in wound healing from beginning to end
(1) Platelets — Macrophage — Lymphocyte — Neutrophils — Fibroblast
(2) Neutrophils — Platelets — Macrophage — Lymphocyte — Fibroblast
(3) Macrophage — Neutrophils — Platelets — Lymphocytes — Fibroblast
(4) Platelets — Neutrophils — Macrophage — Lymphocytes — Fibroblast

51. In immunohistochemistry panel for smooth muscle is
(1) S100
(2) CD20
(3) HMB4S
(4) Desmin

52. DRESS (Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms) is hypersensitivity reaction because of
(1) T cell mediated
(2) Bcell mediated
(3) NK cell
(4) None of the above

53. Cartwheel chromatin is found in
(1) Langerhans cell
(2) Plasma cell
(3) Mast cell
(4) Glomus body

54. Wolff chaikoff effect is seen with therapy of
(1) Sodium chloride
(2) Potassium iodide
(3) Calcium chloride
(4) Sodium bicarbonate

55. Side effect of polymyelinating leukoencephalopathy seen in all except
(1) Cyclosporine
(2) Natalizumab
(3) Azathioprine
(4) MMF

56. All drug cause sensory neuropathy except
(1) Thalidomide
(2) Dapsone
(3) Colchicine
(4) Metronidazole

57. Muddy skin syndrome is side effect of
(1) Macrolides
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Chloramphenicol
(4) Metronidazole

58. Find the right category of pregnancy drug
(1) B-Steroids/HCQ
(2) X-TNF i
(3) C-Estrogen
(4) D-Azathioprine

59. What is the cutaneous complication of long standing Lupus vulgaris ?
(1) Autoinoculation
(2) Actinomycetoma
(3) BCC
(4) SCC

60. Loxascelism is caused due to violin spider secreting
(1) Sphingomyelinase-D
(2) Sphingomyelinase-C
(3) Protease inhibitors
(4) Lipase