General Surgery MCQ
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MCQ on General Surgery
1. Proinflammatory mediators are all, except –
(1) TNFα
(2) IL8
(3) CRE
(4) Nitric oxide
2. Albumin transcapillary escape rate is increased following major injury –
(1) three fold
(2) four fold
(3) five fold
(4) six fold
3. In de Quervain’s thyroiditis –
(1) I123 uptake is high
(2) T4 is low
(3) Thyroid antibodies are present
(4) Confirmed by FNAC
4. Which is the appropriate age i.e. best timing for repair of hypospadias?
(1) One to six months
(2) Six to eighteen months
(3) At puberty
(4) Just after birth
5. All are causes of congenital acute paediatric stridor, except –
(1) Laryngeal web
(2) Subglottic Stenosis
(3) Angioneurotic edema
(4) Laryngomalacia
6. All are true about intussusception in children, except –
(1) Most occur in the age group of two months to two years
(2) Classically present with colicky pain and vomiting
(3) 70% intussusception can be reduced non operatively by air enema
(4) 50% patients may recur after non-operating reduction
7. Multicentric breast cancer refers to occurrence of second cancer within the same breast with a distance of –
(1) More than 4 cm
(2) More than 5 cm
(3) Less than 4 cm
(4) Less than 5 cm
8. Patients presenting with haematuria and on microscopic examination shows dysmorphic RBC, this is indicative of –
(1) Glomerular origin
(2) Tubular origin
(3) Ureter
(4) Urethra and accessory gland
9. Fixative used in testicular biopsy for infertility is –
(1) Zenker fluid
(2) Bouin fluid
(3) Ethyl alcohol
(4) Glutaraldehyde
10. Migrating motor complex reaches terminal ileum from duodenum after –
(1) 0.5 hrs
(2) 1.5 hrs
(3) 2.5 hrs
(4) 3.5 hrs
11. The current treatment options for LCIS include all, except –
(1) Unilateral mastectomy
(2) Bilateral mastectomy
(3) Observation with screening
(4) Chemoprevention
12. Primitive streak remnants gives rise to –
(1) Neuroblastoma
(2) Wilms’ tumour
(3) Sacrococcygeal teratoma
(4) Hepatoblastoma
13. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of –
(1) gastroduodenal artery
(2) left gastroepiploic artery
(3) superior mesenteric artery
(4) inferior mesenteric artery
14. How many lymph nodes need to be removed during sentinel lymph node biopsy for accurate staging of axilla?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
15. Normally anorectal angle is –
(1) 80°
(2) 100°
(3) 120°
(4) 140°
16. In a case of esophageal perforation, all are indications for surgery, except –
(1) Unstable with sepsis and shock
(2) Evidence of heavily contaminated mediastinum
(3) No evidence of retained foreign body
(4) Widespread intrapleural contamination
17. In case of undescended testis division of deep epigastric vessel to achieve a straighter route to the scrotum is –
(1) Fowler’s Stephen procedure
(2) Prentiss manoeuvre
(3) Koff’s procedure
(4) Shehata technique
18. Cystic duct of gallbladder is surrounded by a wall of sphincteric structure called the sphincter of –
(1) Phrygian
(2) Liitkens
(3) Luschka
(4) Fred Bates Lund
19. A 40-years-old gentleman, known case of cirrhosis of liver presents with massive upper gastrointestinal bleed. The first step in management of this patient is –
(1) TIPS
(2) Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy
(3) Terlipressin
(4) Fluid resuscitation
20. External beam radiotherapy for localized carcinoma of prostate is given by –
(1) Intensity-modulated radiotherapy
(2) Image guided radiotherapy
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Cobalt therapy
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21. Liver is divided into functional right and left unit by –
(1) Claude Couinaud Line
(2) Cantlie’s Line
(3) P. Correa Line
(4) Robert E. Condon Line
22. The classic triad of pheochromocytoma consists of all, except –
(1) Paroxysmal hypertension
(2) Dhiaphoresis
(3) Palpitations
(4) Headache
23. Splenic artery arises from –
(1) Celiac axis
(2) Short gastric
(3) Left gastroepiploic
(4) Gastroduodenal
24. Gas gangrene produced. by clostridium perfringens produce many exotoxins, except –
(1) Alpha toxin
(2) Beta toxin
(3) Phi toxin
(4) Kappa toxin
25. Testes lie at the internal inguinal ring during gestation at –
(1) 3 months
(2) 6 months
(3) 7 months
(4) 9 months
26. Most common organ involved in blunt injury to abdomen is –
(1) Spleen
(2) Liver
(3) Intestine
(4) Kidney
27. Anterior anatomical relations of the rectum are all, except –
(1) Denonvilliers fascia
(2) Ureters
(3) Seminal vesicles
(4) Pelvic autonomic plexus
28. Which of the following is an indication for parathyroidectomy in asymptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism?
(1) Long term medical surveillance is possible
(2) GFR>60ml/min
(3) Serum calcium>1 mg/dl above the upper limit of normal
(4) Age>50 years
29. Inferior parathyroid gland arise from the –
(1) First pharyngeal pouch
(2) Second pharyngeal pouch
(3) Third pharyngeal pouch
(4) Fourth pharyngeal pouch
30. In aright sided paraduodenal hernia, the vessel lying in the anterior wall is –
(1) Superior mesenteric artery
(2) Middle colic artery
(3) Superior mesenteric vein
(4) Inferior mesenteric vein
31. The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is –
(1) Ipsilateral pupillary dilation
(2) Contra lateral pupillary dilation
(3) Altered mental status
(4) Hemiparesis
32. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra-abdominal bleeding in stable patient is by –
(1) CT scan
(2) MRI scan
(3) USG
(4) DPL
33. Modified shock formula is –
(1) Heart rate/Systolic pressure
(2) Heart rate/Diastolic pressure
(3) Heart rate/Mean arterial pressure
(4) Pulse rate/Systolic blood pressure
34. According to bismuth Strasberg classification of bile duct injuries, a stricture at the confluence preserving the extrahepatic ducts is of type –
(1) E1
(2) E2
(3) E3
(4) E4
35. Damage control resuscitation strategy is –
(1) Anticipate and treat with fluids
(2) Permissive hypotension until hemorrhage control
(3) Protect from further injury
(4) Start vasopressor
36. The most effective bariatric surgery for morbid obesity in the form of weight loss is –
(1) Biliopancreatic diversion
(2) Roux-en-Y surgery
(3) Vertical banded gastroplasty
(4) Laparoscopic gastric banding
37. The most common cause of hemobilia is –
(1) Penetrating trauma
(2) Malignancy
(3) Inflammatory disorders
(4) Iatrogenic trauma
38. Shelf life of fresh frozen plasma is –
(1) 2 days
(2) 2 weeks
(3) 2 months
(4) 2 years
39. Gas gangrene is caused by –
(1) Streptococcus
(2) Clostridium botulinum
(3) Clostridium difficile
(4) Clostridium perfringens
40. Secondary survey of ATLS guidelines includes –
(1) Mechanism and energy involved in the injury
(2) Hypoglycaemia
(3) Attentions to examination of head, neck and spine
(4) Follow adult basic life support algorithm
41. Which is not a branch of thyrocervical trunk?
(1) Inferior thyroid artery
(2) Suprascapular artery
(3) Transverse cervical artery
(4) Deep cervical artery
42. Which is not a component of carotid sheath?
(1) Internal carotid artery
(2) Vagus nerve
(3) Sympathetic trunk
(4) Internal jugular vein
43. Meniscus or crescent sign on chest radiography is characteristic of impending rupture of –
(1) Amoebic liver abscess
(2) Pulmonary hydatid diseases
(3) Barrett’s oesophagus
(4) Cold abscess chest wail
44. Capsule endoscopy is indicated in –
(1) occult gastrointestinal bleeding
(2) small bowel strictures
(3) gastroparesis
(4) pseudo obstruction
45. Mismatched blood transfusion in anaesthetised patient presents as –
(1) Hyperthermia and hypertension
(2) Hypotension and bleeding from site of wound
(3) Bradycardia and hypertension
(4) Tachycardia and hypotension
46. In spinal anaesthesia autonomic sympathetic blockade produces hypotension particularly if the level of blockade is above –
(1) T10
(2) T11
(3) T12
(4) L5
47. First video-Laparoscopic cholecystectomy was performed in –
(1) 1978
(2) 1980
(3) 1987
(4) 1989
48. Best time to give prophylactic antibiotic –
(1) 2 days before surgery
(2) 1 day before surgery
(3) At the time of induction
(4) At the time of skin incision
49. Which of the following artery supply the fundus of the stomach?
(1) Right gastric artery
(2) Splenic artery
(3) Short gastric artery
(4) Gastroduodenal artery
50. Drug of choice for radiation therapy induced symptoms i.e. vomiting is treated by –
(1) Granisetron
(2) Prazosin
(3) Clonidine
(4) Dimenhydrinate
51. Negative Pressure Wound Therapy (NPWT) is used in –
(1) Bed sore in sacrum after debridement
(2) After amputation negative suction
(3) Osteomyelitis
(4) Unexplored fistula
52. Day care surgery is defined as the admission and discharge of a patient for a specific procedure with in the working day –
(1) 8 hours stay
(2) 12 hours stay
(3) 18 hours stay
(4) 23 hours stay
53. Accessory pancreatic duct is also called as –
(1) Wirsung duct
(2) Santorini duct
(3) Henson’s duct
(4) Hoffmann duct
54. Number of minor calyces in one kidney is about –
(1) 7-14
(2) 14-28
(3) 24
(4) 25-30
55. The most common extremity tumour in adult is –
(1) Rhabdomyosarcoma
(2) Liposarcoma
(3) Leiomyosarcoma
(4) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
56. Drug of choice for chemotherapy in soft tissue sarcoma is –
(1) 5 fluorouracil
(2) Doxorubicin
(3) Paclitaxane
(4) Gemcitabine
57. Beahr’s triangle is formed by –
(1) Subclavian artery, jugular vein and trachea
(2) Tracheal border, carotid artery and. recurrent laryngeal nerve
(3) Inferior thyroid artery, recurrent laryngeal nerve and border of trachea
(4) Recurrent laryngeal nerve, inferior thyroid artery and carotid artery
58. Not a component of POEMS syndrome –
(1) Multiple myeloma
(2) Endocrinopathy
(3) Polyneuropathy
(4) Ocsophageal atresia
59. Bunion is commonly seen at –
(1) great toe of MTP joint
(2) medial malleolus
(3) lateral malleolus
(4) shin of tibia
60. Complication related to pneumoperitoneum include all, except –
(1) Vagal stimulation and bradycardia
(2) Hypotension
(3) Port site infection
(4) Cardiac Arrythmia
