Anatomy Practice Set

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Practice Set of Anatomy

1. Which of the following cell type can be used for Karyotyping?
(1) Neurons
(2) Erythrocytes
(3) Buccal mucosal cells
(4) Fibroblasts

2. The Trisomy syndrome that is associated with Kocher bottom feet is
(1) Klinfelter
(2) Patau
(3) Edward
(4) Down

3. The Barr-body seen in a
(1) Turner syndrome
(2) Klinefelter syndrome
(3) Testicular feminisation
(4) Karyotype 46 XY

4. Mutation is defined as alteration in
(1) DNA sequence
(2) mRNA formation
(3) Amino acids of polypeptides
(4) Cell wall receptors

5. The type of inheritance where an affected father transmits the disease to half of his children is
(1) Autosomal dominant
(2) linked recessive
(3) Mitochondrial
(4) X linked dominant

6. If a disease, caused by environmental condition, mimics a genetic disorder, it is called as
(1) Association
(2) Genocopy
(3) Phenocopy
(4) Heterogeneity

7. Gene bank characterised by all of the following, except :
(1) Collection of artificial recombined DNA molecules.
(2) Collection of artificial recombined RNA molecules.
(3) Useful in maintaining the Species that are on the verge of being extinct.
(4) Incorporated into bacterial plasmids.

8. Following statements are true about plastination, except : :
(1) It is a process to preserve the perishable biological tissue for long time.
(2) Technique was invented by Gunther Von Hagens.
(3) In modified short protocol plastination done by using epoxy resin.
(4) Plastinated tissue cannot be stored at room temperature.

9. Most commonly used contrast medium in Radiography is
(1) Barium sulphate
(2) Iodine
(3) Technetium
(4) Lead (Pb)

10. All statements are true about Magnetic Resonance Anglography (MRA), except :
(1) No exposure to X-ray.
(2) Its a short process than the traditional angiography.
(3) There is need to introduce catheter for the procedure.
(4) Procedure can be carried out without using contrast material.

11. In an intravenous pyologram, a stone is suspected at the pelviuretheral junction. It is likely to be visible near the transverse process of the following vertebrae :
(1) T10
(2) T12
(3) L2
(4) L5

12. Which artery was used by William Hunter during embalming for injecting chemical solution?
(1) Femoral artery
(2) Carotid artery
(3) Popliteal artery
(4) Axillary artery

13. All of the following criteria are considered for rejection of body in body donation process, except :
(1) Body of medico legal case
(2) No consent of family / blood relatives
(3) Extreme obese
(4) Body with removed organ (Epeer)

14. First Manual on Anatomy was written in:
(1) Egypt about 3400 BC
(2) Greek Era 450 BC
(3) Modern Era 15th to 16th century
(4) None of these

15. The term Histology was coined by
(1) Mayer (1819)
(2) Bichat (1771-1802)
(3) Marcello Malphigi (1628)
(4) Robert Hooke (1635)

16. Which of the following is the thickest intervertebral disc?
(1) Disc between C5 and C6
(2) Disc between T12 and L1
(3) Disc between L5, and S1
(4) Disc between S1 and S2

17. Isometric muscle contraction is defined as
(1) length of muscle changes but tension does not increases
(2) length of muscle changes and tension increases
(3) length of muscle remain constant but tension increases
(4) length and tension of muscle both remain constant

18. Which of the following is NOT an end artery?
(1) Central artery of Retina
(2) Facial artery
(3) Medullary branches of cerebral artery
(4) Arteries of spleen

19. Father of modern anatomy
(1) Vesalius
(2) William Harvey
(3) John Hunter
(4) Malpighi

20. A trend towards simplification of anatomical nomenclature began?
(1) In 17th century
(2) In 18th century
(3) In 19th century
(4) In 20th century

21. The term anatomy is derived from the Greck word anatome whose meaning is
(1) to analyse
(2) to cut up
(3) to observe death
(4) to cut anus

22. What is true about Hippocrates?
(1) He was a famous Greek Physician.
(2) He had wide exposer to human dissection.
(3) He had attributed disease to natural cause.
(4) He is regarded as father of medicine.

23. All are true regarding thymus, except :
(1) it is located in superior mediastinum
(2) secrets thymosin
(3) filters blood to remove blood borne antigens
(4) receives immunologically incompetent cells from bone marrow

24. The right sequence of reflex arc is
(1) sensory receptor — afferent neuron — association neuron — efferent neuron — effector organ
(2) sensory receptor — association neuron — afferent neuron — efferent neuron — effector organ
(3) effector organ — efferent neuron — association neuron — afferent neuron — sensory receptor
(4) afferent neuron — sensory receptor — association neuron — efferent neuron — effector organ

25. The spinal nerve which is not associated with its specific dermatome
(1) C1
(2) C7
(3) C8
(4) T1

26. Strongest ligament of body is
(1) Round ligament
(2) Iliofemoral ligament
(3) Ischiofemoral ligament
(4) Pubofemoral ligament

27. Segmental innervation of hip joint is
(1) L1, L2, L3, L4
(2) L2, L3, L4, L5
(3) L3,L4, L5, S1
(4) L4,L5,S1, S2

28. Circumduction is defined as combination of
(1) flexion, extension, abduction and adduction
(2) abduction, adduction, extension and flexion
(3) extension, flexion, adduction and abduction
(4) flexion, extension, adduction and abduction

29. Largest carpal bone is
(1) Scaphoid
(2) Capitate
(3) Hamate
(4) Pisiform

30. Distal end of humerus develops from how many centres?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31. Most comm site of clavicle fracture
(1) between medial 1/3rd and lateral 2/3rd
(2) medial end
(3) lateral end
(4) between medial 2/3rd and lateral 1/3rd

32. Upper border of public ramus forms
(1) pubic tubercle
(2) pubic symphysis
(3) arcuate line
(4) upper mat gin of obturator foramen

33. Which one of the ligament supports talus?
(1) Spring ligament
(2) Deltoid ligament
(3) Lateral calcanium ligament
(4) Cervical ligament

34. Nutrient artery to femur is a branch from
(1) femoral artery
(2) profunda femoral artery
(3) lateral circumflex femoral artery
(4) popliteal artery

35. Which among the following is the longest Rib?
(1) 7th Rib
(2) 9th Rib
(3) 1st Rib
(4) 12th Rib

36. Xiphoid process lies at the level of
(1) T9 vertebrae
(2) T7 vertebrae
(3) T5 vertebrae
(4) T3 vertebrae

37. Metopic suture closes at the age of
(1) 6 months
(2) 3 years
(3) 6 years
(4) 60 years

38. Reid’s line extends from
(1) Infraorbital margin to superior margin of external acoustic meatus
(2) Infraorbital margin to centre of external acoustic meatus
(3) Infraorbital margin to inferior margin of external acoustic meatus
(4) Supraorbital margin to inferior margin of external acoustic meatus

39. Coracobrachialis is pierced by the following nerve :
(1) Axillary nerve
(2) Median nerve
(3) Musculo-cutaneous nerve
(4) Ulnar nerve

40. Muscle acting both on knee and ankle joint is
(1) Soleus
(2) Plantaris
(3) Tuibialis posterior
(4) Flexor hallucis longus

41. Femoral ring is bounded by the following structures, except :
(1) Femoral vein
(2) Inguinal ligament
(3) Femoral artery
(4) Lacunar ligament

42. Muscle which is not pierced while pleural tapping in mid axillary line
(1) Internal intercostal
(2) External intercostal
(3) Innermost intercostal
(4) Transverces thoracic

43. Pyramidalis muscle is supplied by
(1) Subcostal nerve
(2) Ilioinguinal nerve
(3) Iliohypogastric nerve
(4) Genitofemoral nerve

44. Which of the following muscle depresses the mandible?
(1) Medial pterygoid
(2) Lateral pterygoid
(3) Masseter
(4) Temporalis

45. Which of the following muscle of palate is not supplied by the cranial part of the accessory nerve fibres?
(1) Tensor veli palatini
(2) Palatopharyngeus
(3) Palatoglossus
(4) Musculus uvulae