Nov 21, 2016

IDBI Bank Executive Model Question Answer Paper

IDBI Bank Executive Model Question Answer Paper

Directions (Q. 1-5): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II An assumption is-something supposed or taken for granted You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only Assumption I is implicit.
Give answer (2) if only Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either I or II is implicit.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
Give answer (5) if both I and II are implicit.

1. Statement: The government has decided to pay compensation to the tune of Rs 1 lakh to the family members of those who are killed in railway accidents.
Assumptions:
I. The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation.
II. There may be reduction in incidents of railway accidents in near future.

2. Statement: The X-Airlines has temporarily suspended flights to a few destinations for the next four days due to the strike call given by the Pilots’ Association.
Assumptions:
I. The airlines may be able to restore all the flights after four days.
II. The Pilots’ Association may withdraw the strike call within four days.

3. Statement: The civic authority has appealed to the citizens to cooperate in curbing rampant power theft in the locality.
Assumptions:
I. The local citizens group may respond to the request and form groups of people to detect such cases of power theft.
II. Those who are engaged in stealing power may stop doing so for fear of social castigation.

4. Statement: The Parent Teacher Association (PTA) of a school has informed the Principal that they will not send their children to the school unless the school authority reduces the fees with immediate effect.
Assumptions:
I. Majority of the parents may agree with the PTA and may not send their wards to the school.
II. The school authority may accede to the demand of the PTA and reduce the fees.

5. Statement: ‘If you are first class graduate, our organisation is the best place for you to work.” —advertisement
Assumptions:
I. No other organisation may require first class graduates as they may not get adequate number of applications.
II. First class graduates may get attracted and apply to this organisation.

Directions (Q. 6-10): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong.
Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong.
Give answer (3) if either l or II is strong.
Giver answer (4) if neither I nor II is strong.
Giver answer (5) if both l and II are strong.

6. Should all those who have come in contact with the patients suffering from the dreaded infectious respiratory disease be quarantined in their house?
Arguments:
I. No, nobody should be quarantined unless they are tested and found to be infected by the virus causing the disease.
II. Yes, this is the only way to control the spread of the dreaded disease.

7. Should there be only one rate of interest for term deposits of varying durations in banks?
Arguments:
I. No, people will refrain from keeping money for longer duration resulting into reduction of liquidity level of banks.
II. Yes, this will be much simple for the common people and they may be encouraged to keep more money in banks.

8. Should there be a cap on maximum number of contestants for parliamentary elections in any constituency?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will make the parliamentary elections more meaningful as the voters can make a considered judgement for casting their vote.
II. No, in a democracy any person fulfilling the eligibility criteria can contest parliamentary elections and there should be no such restrictions.

9. Should all those who are found guilty of committing homicide or abetting homicide be either given capital punishment or kept in jail for the entire life?
Arguments:
I. Yes, only such severe punishments will make people refrain from committing such heinous acts and the society will be more safe.
II. No, those who are repentant for the crime they committed should be given a chance to lead a normal life outside the jail.

10. Should there be a restriction on the migration of people from one state to another in India?
Arguments:
I. No, any Indian citizen has a basic right to stay at any place of their choice and hence they cannot be stopped.
II. Yes, this is the way to effect an equitable distribution of resources across the states in India.

Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
J 1 # P 4 E K 3 A P $ R U M 9 N 5 I % T V * H 2 ÷ F 6 G 8 Q W
11. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is either immediately preceded by or immediately followed by a vowel or both?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

12. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between the tenth from the left and the eighth from the right end in the above arrangement?
1) M
2) N
3) I
4) 5
5) None of these

13. If the order of the last fifteen elements in the above arrangement is reversed, which of the following will be the ninth to the right of the eleventh element from the left end?
1) G
2) %
3) 8
4) 3
5) None of these

14. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol but not immediately followed by either a number or a vowel?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) More than three

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) A$E
2) %VN
3) 2FV
4) 4K1
5) 6Q÷

Directions (Q. 16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
I. P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are eight students in a class. Three of them play cricket and badminton each and two of them play hockey. Each one of them has a different height.
II. The tallest does not play hockey and the shortest does not play cricket.
III. V is taller than P and S but shorter than Z and Q. T, who does not play cricket, is taller than Q and is second to the tallest. W is shorter than S but taller than P.
IV. Z, who is the fourth from the top, plays badminton with S.
V. W does not play either cricket or hockey. Q does not play hockey.

16. Who is the tallest?
1) Q
2) Z
3) R
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

17. Who is the shortest?
1) W
2) S
3) Z
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

18. Which of the following pairs of students plays hockey?
1) TV
2) ZT
3) ZV
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

19. What is V’s position from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their height?
1) Third
2) Fifth
3) Fourth
4) Sixth
5) None of these

20. Which of the following groups of students plays cricket?
1) RPT
2) RQV
3) RPQ
4) PQR or QRV
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
Give answer (5) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. What is Sunil’s position in a row of forty students?
I. There are sixteen students towards the left of Sunil.
II. There are twenty-three students towards the right of Sunil.

22. On which date in April was Varun born?
I. Varun’s mother remembers that Varun was born before nineteenth but after fifteenth.
II. Varun’s sister remembers that Varun was born before seventeenth but after twelfth.

23. How is ‘go’ written in a code language?
I. ‘you may go’ is written as ‘pit ja ho’ in that code language.
II. ‘he may come’ is written as ‘ja da na’ in that language.

24. How is D related to M?
I. M has two sisters K and R.
II. D’s mother is sister of K’s father.

25. Who among M, T, R, J and K is the lightest?
I. R is heavier than T and K but lighter than J.
II. J is not the heaviest.

Directions (Q. 26-30): Each of the questions below contains three elements. These three elements may or may not have some linkage. Each group of the elements may fit into one of the diagrams at (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to indicate the group of elements in each of the questions fits into which of the diagrams given below. The number of the diagram is the answer.
Question

26. Vegetable, Potato, Cabbage
27. Metal, Iron, Chlorine
28. Classroom, College, Student
29. Anxiety, Intelligence, Strength
30. Nitrogen, Ice, Air

Directions (Q. 31-40): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the criteria for recruiting Managers in an organisation:
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate with at least 60% marks or a postgraduate with 60% marks either at graduation or at post graduation.
(ii) not be less than 23 years and not more than 30 years as on 1.6.2003.
(iii) have secured at least 50% in the competitive written examination and at least 40% marks in the interview.
(iv) have at least three years’ work experience after completing graduation and/or post graduation.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the criteria except at
(a) (i) above, but has obtained a PhD degree, his/her case is to be referred to the Managing Director.
(b) (ii) above, but has put in more than five years of work experience, his/her case is to be referred to the Chairman.
Now based on the criteria and waivers given above and the information provided in each of the following questions, you have to decide a proper course of action as regards status of the candidates. You have are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. These cases are given to you as on 1.6.2003. You have to pick up one of the following answers.
Mark answer (1) if the candidate is not to be recruited.
Mark answer (2) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman.
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to be referred to the Managing Director.
Mark answer (4) if the candidate is to be recruited.
Mark answer (5) if the data provided is not adequate to take a decision.

31. Adesh Kulkarni has secured 65% marks in his postgraduation. He was born on 21 st April 1976. He has secured 55% and 45% marks in the competitive written examination and interview respectively. He has been working for the last five years after his postgraduation.

32. Suresh Oberoi secured 65% marks in postgraduation at the age of 26 in the year 1997. He has been working since then. He has secured 55% and 40% marks in the competitive written examination and interview respectively.

33. Vidisha Ghosh has secured 65% and 60% marks in the competitive written examination and interview respectively. She has also obtained her PhD degree. She was born on 25th November, 1976. She has secured 55% marks in both graduation and postgraduation.

34. Jayant Desai was 28 years old as on 1.7.2001. He has secured 45% and 60% in graduation and postgraduation respectively. He has been working for the last three years after his postgraduation. He has secured 60% marks in the interview.

35. Joseph D’Souza is a first-class postgraduate in Economics. He has been working for four years since then. He has secured 50% and 40% marks in the competitive written examination and interview respectively. He was born on 11th May 1973.

36. Neha Khoobchandani was born on 27th October 1972. She has been working for the last seven years after her graduation in which she secured 65% marks. She has secured 45% and 55% marks in competitive written examination and interview respectively.

37. Arun Bhosle was born 2nd January 1979. He has been working for the last three years after obtaining his PhD in management. He has secured 50% and 55% marks in the competitive written examination and interview respectively. He has secured 55% marks in postgraduation.

38. Usha Agrawal has been working for the last eight years after her graduation. She has secured 65% and 55% marks in competitive written examination and interview respectively. She was born on 10th August 1975. She is a first-class graduate.

39. Anubha Goel was born on 3rd August 1977. She has secured 70% marks in graduation. She has been working for the last four years. She has secured 40% and 50% marks in the competitive written examination and interview respectively.

40. Altaf Humin is a first class postgraduate and has obtained his PhD in Science. He has been working for the last two years. He was born on'7th May 1977. He has secured 60% and 45% marks in the competitive written examination 8110 interview respectively.

Directions (Q. 41-45): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, ie it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, ie it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
The prospects for the Indian economy this year will be influenced by the behaviour of the monsoon and expansion of commerce and trade. The Tenth Plan has envisaged the growth target of 8 per cent. If the agriculture sector does well and the world trade conditions improve, then it is possible to achieve a growth of 6-7 per cent. We need to improve our economy and aim at higher rate of growth in order to feed our population, maintain the standard of living and improve the quality of life. It is now more than 10 years we adopted reforms. We need to go forward in liberalisation but we cannot throw open the market for everything. There are sectors like village industries which need protection.

41. The economic growth last year was below 6 per cent.
42. Free market strategy is beneficial for India only in selected sectors.
43. The current trend of liberalization is good enough to sustain about 6 per cent growth.
44. The economic growth in the current year will entirely depend on agricultural production.
45. The world trade conditions have major impact on Indian economy.

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