Jun 13, 2016

Union Bank Specialist Officer Sample Question Answer Paper

Union Bank Specialist Officer Sample Question Answer Paper

Union Bank of India Reasoning Sample Question Paper


Directions (Q. 1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) In a family of six persons — A, B, C, D, E and F — there are three males and three females. There are two married couples and two persons are unmarried. Each one of them reads different newspapers, viz. Times of India, Indian Express, Hindustan Times, Financial Times, Navbharat Times and Business Standard.
(b) E, who reads Indian Express, is mother-in-law of A, who is wife of C. D is the father of F and he does not read Times of India or Business Standard. B reads Navbharai Times and is the sister of F, who reads Hindustan Times. C does not read Business Standard.
1. Who among the following reads The Times of India?
1) C
2) D
3) A
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

2. How is F related to E?
1) Daughter
2) Brother
3) Son
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

3. Which of the following is one of the married couples?
1) D-B
2) D-E
3) B-F
4) E-F
5) None of these

4. Which of the following newspapers is read by ‘A’?
1) Times of India
2) Navbharat Times
3) Financial Times
4) Data inadequate
5) None of these

5. How many sons does E have?
1) Four
2) Three
3) Two
4) One
5) None of these



Union Bank of India SO Preparation 2016


Directions (Q. 6-10): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer
1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
4) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts.
The XYZ Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation of India Limited has targeted a sales turnover of Rs. 10,000 crore by the year 2005. As a pan of its projections for the next five years, the federation had envisaged Rs. 100 crore worth of exports per year as against its present exports of Rs. 30 crore per year.
As per the federation’s plan, the future network will include 100 offices dealing with about 7500 stockists, who in turn would be covering every taluka headquarters and servicing about 10 lakh odd outlets. Its immediate strategy would be to cater to India’s next-door neighbours for exports of milk products.
The main players in this business in the world are India, United States, Europe, New Zealand and Australia, out of which Europe and United States are forced to go for subsidising due to rising labour cost while Australia and New Zealand are far away from India.

6. By 2005, more than 90 per cent of product of XYZ will be used for domestic market.
7. The federation’s emphasis appears to be more on exports than on domestic consumption of its products.
8. By 2005, India will be the largest player in the milk industry.
9. India does not have an immediate competitor in exporting milk and its product to neighbouring countries.
10. The XYZ Federation may have to train additional manpower to enable it to reach all comers of India and its neighbouring countries.

11. If both the statements "All pens are erasers" and "Some erasers are pins" are true then which of the following statements is definitely true?
1) Some pins are pens.
2) All erasers are pens.
3) No pin is pen.
4) Some pens are pins.
5) None of these

12. "@" means "s", "A" means ">" and "$" means "=". If P @ Q, R Δ S and Q $ R, then which of the following statements is definitely true?
1) RΔP
2) P$Q
3) P@R
4) P@S
5) None of these

13. If the digits on the dial of a clock are replaced by alternate English alphabet beginning with D such as D replaces 1, F replaces 2 and so on, then where will be the hour hand at 19.45 O’clock?
1) Between O and Q
2) Between N and P
3) Between P and R
4) Between M and O
5) None of these

14. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are standing in a row facing South but not necessarily in the same order. Only B is between A and E, C is immediate right to E, and D is immediate left to A. On the basis of above information, which of the following statements is definitely true?
1) B is to the right of E
2) A is second to the left of C
3) D is third to the left of E
4) B is to the left of A
5) None of these

15. If the sentence "you must go early to catch the train" is coded as "early catch train must to go the you", what will be code for the sentence "morning exercise will help you to keep fit"?
1) help to fit you exercise will keep morning
2) help to fit exercise you will keep morning
3) will help to fit you exercise keep morning
4) will fit to exercise you help keep morning
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 16-20): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements‘ are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement l alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

16. Which direction is Shashidhar facing?
Statements:
I. In the early morning Shashidhar was standing in front of a puppet and the shadow of the puppet was falling to the right of Shashidhar.
II. In the early morning Shashidhar was standing on the ground. His shadow was falling behind him when he turned to his left.

17. Who among A, B, C, D and E teaches History?
Statements:
I. Each one of them teaches only one subject. B teaches Mathematics, while E teaches Science. A or C does not teach Geography. A or D does not teach English.
II. C and E are teachers of English and Science respectively and A is the teacher of Mathematics.

18. In a row of boys facing South who is immediate left to Ramakant?
Statements:
I. Suresh is immediate right to Chandrakant, who is fourth to the right of Ramakant.
II. Suresh is third to the right of Ramakant and Naresh is second to the right of Suresh.

19. Who has secured the maximum marks among six friends A, B, C, D, E and F?
Statements:
I. B secured less marks than A and F but not less than C, D and E.
II. F secured more marks than B but not as much as A.

20. What will be the position of hour hand of a clock at 7.30 PM?
Statements:
I. There are English alphabets on the dial of the clock instead of digits.
II. The hour hand is at P at 7 O’clock.

Directions (Q. 21-27): Study the following information to answer the questions given below:
A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.
Input: 48 245 182 26 99 542 378 297
Step I: 542 48 245 18226 99 378297
Step II: 542 26 48 245 182 99 378 297
Step III: 542 26 378 48 245 182 99 297
Step IV: 542 26 378 48 297 245 182 99
Step V: 542 216 318 48 297 99 245 1882
This is1s the final arrangement and step V is the last for this input.
21. What will the fourth step for an input whose seconds is given below?
Step: 765 42 183 289 542 65 110 350
1) 765 42 542 350183 289 65 110
2) 765 42 542 110183 289 350
3) 765 42 542 65183 289110 350
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

22. What should be the third step of the following input?
Input: 239 123 58 361 495 37
1) 495 37361123239 58
2) 495 37 58 361 123 239
3) 495 37 58123 361239
4) 495 37 361239 123 58
5) None of these

23. How many steps will be required to get the final out from the following input?
Input: 39 88 162 450 386 72 29
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Six
5) None of these

24. What should be the last step of the following input?
Input: 158 279 348 28 326 236
1) 348 28 32 158 279 236
2) 348 28 326 236 158 279
3) 348 28 236 158 279 326
4) 348 28 158 326 236 279
5) None of these

25. If the first step of an input is "785 198 32 426 373 96 49", then which of the following step will be "785 32 426 49 198 373 96"?
1) Third
2) Fourth
3) Fifth
4) Second
5) None of these

26. Below is given the second step of an input. What will be its fourth step?
Step II: 298 172 128 36 212 185
1) 298 122 12 128 36 185
2) 298 12 212 36 128 185
3) 298 12 36 212 128 185
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

27. Below is given the third step of an input. What will be its second step?
Step III: 387 42 236 185 92 64
1) 387 42185 236 92 64
2) 387 42 92185 236 64
3) 387 42 185 92 236 64
4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 28-31): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(i) There are five types of cards viz. A, B, C, D and E. There are three cards of each type. These are to be inserted in envelopes of three colours—- red, yellow and brown. There are five envelopes of each colour.
(ii) B, D and E type cards are to be inserted in red envelopes; A, B and C type cards are to be inserted in yellow envelopes; and C, D and E type cards are to be inserted in brown envelopes.
(iii) Two cards each of B and D type are inserted in red envelopes.

28. How many cards of E type are inserted in brown envelopes?
1) Nil
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) Data inadequate

29. Which of the following combinations of the type of cards and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of yellow-coloured envelopes?
1) A-2, B-1, C-2
2) B-1, C-2, D-2
3) A-2, E-1, D-2
4) A-3, B-1, C-1
5) None of these

30. Which of the following combinations of types of cards and the number of cards and colour of envelope is definitely correct?
1) C-2, D-1, E-2, Brown
2) C-1, D-2, E-2, Brown
3) B-2, D-2, A-1, Red
4) A-2, B-2, C-1, Yellow
5) None of these

31. Which of the following combinations of colour of the envelope and the number of cards is definitely correct in respect of E type cards?
1) Red-2, Brown-1
2) Red-1, Yellow-2
3) Red-2, Yellow- 1
4) Yellow-1, Brown-2
5) None of these

32. "Forty per cent of our products are sold in rural area, fifty-three per cent are sold in semi-urban area, sixty per cent of employees are from rural area." Which of the following statements is definitely true?
1) The company’s products are purchased only by its employees and their family.
2) The company does not desire to recruit urban employees.
3) The company’s products are required in big urban cities and metro areas.
4) The company holds approximately 90% of the market share in its product line.
5) None of these

33. "We do not advertise, our product speaks for itself."- Statement of manufacturer of two wheeler ‘BJA’. Which of the following, if true, would support and strengthen this statement?
(i) The prices of BJA two-wheelers are on higher side.
(ii) ‘BJA’ has won award for Quality Control Systems.
(iii) The BJA two-wheeler is sleek-looking and has good colours.
(iv) The salaries of BJA employees are better than government services.
1) Only (i) and (ii)
2) Only (ii) and (iii)
3) Only (iii) and (iv)
4) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
5) None of these

Directions (Q. 34-40): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions:
Following are the criteria for organising interview of such candidates as have been selected from the promotion to officer’s grade from assistant grade in the PRS Industrial Group Limited:
The candidate to be called for interview must:
(i) be a graduate with minimum 50% marks.
(ii) have minimum five years’ experience in the clerical cadre job.
(iii) have obtained at least ‘C’ ratings in performance (speed of work) and the quality of work each during the last three years. For this five ratings A, B, C, D and E-have been created on the basis of "Performance Appraisal Report" with the lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of E.
(iv) have obtained at least ‘D’ ratings in the approach of work (dependability) and in the flexibility of work each for his/her works in the last three years. For this, seven ratings A, B,C, D, E, F and G have been formulated on the basis of "Performance Appraisal Report" with lowest ratings of A and the highest ratings of G.
However, in case of a candidate who fulfills all other criteria EXCEPT
(a) (i) above, but has passed Graduation Exam and has got ‘E’ ratings in the approach of work in the last three years, may be referred to the Assistant Manager (Personnel).
(b) (ii) above, but has experience of three years in clerical cadre job and has got at least ‘D’ ratings in the quality of work for his/her works in the last three years, may be referred to the Deputy Manager (Personnel).
Based on these criteria and information provided against each candidate, decide the course of action. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided are not adequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be "Data inadequate". All the candidates fulfill the criterion of age.
Give answer
(1) if data are inadequate
(2) if not to be selected
(3) if selected for the interview
(4) if case is referred to the Assistant Manager
(5) if case is referred to the Deputy Manager .

34. Mohammed Sheikh is a brilliant post-graduate in Science and has secured 63% and 55% marks in graduation and post graduation respectively. He has ‘E’ grade for dependability and flexibility in Performance Appraisal Report for last four years. He has got ‘C’ rating for quality of work and speed of work. He joined the Bank four years ago.

35. Kiran Bala is a young lady and laborious assistant who joined this organisation six years ago after passing B. Commerce Exam. The ratings being given to her for the last 4 years are ‘D’ and ‘C’ respectively for quality of work and speed of work. She is one of the leaders of the clerks. She has got ‘D’ ratings for flexibility of work for the last 5 years.

36. Mandar Bhave has passed his Graduation in Science and Diploma in Business Management with 58% and 62% respectively. He is good player of chess. His rating on PAR are ‘D’ for ‘dependability’ and ‘flexibility’ whereas he has ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of work’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘speed of work’ for the last 4 years.

37. Anubhav Rege is with the company for last seven years. For the last 4 years he has ‘D’ rating for ‘quality of work’, ‘C’ rating for ‘speed of work’, ‘E’ rating for ‘dependability’ and ‘D’ rating for ‘flexibility’. His marks in graduation and post-graduation are 46% and 50% respectively. He is very fond of cultural activities.

38. Shivasundaram has got ‘D’ rating since he joined the bank three years ago on quality of Work, speed of work, dependability and flexibility. He has passed his graduation and post-graduation with 52% and 47% marks respectively. Shivasundaram is a popular employee because of his social activities.

39. Seema Mukhi is working in the clerical cadre for last five-and-a-half years. She has got ‘D’ and ‘E’ ratings respectively on ‘flexibility’ and ‘dependability’ and ‘C’ rating for ‘quality of Work’ and ‘speed of work’ for last four years. She has obtained 55% and 48% at SSC and graduation respectively.

40. Anthony Cruz is a sportsman and is Vice-Captain of cricket team of PRS Industries Ltd. He is working with the company for last seven years in the clerical cadre. The rating being given to him for the last 3 years is ‘C’ and ‘D’ grade for quality of work and speed of work respectively. Similarly, he has ‘D’ grade for dependability and flexibility in PAR. He is an Arts graduate with 54% of marks.

Directions (Q. 41-45): In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3) (4) and (5) is the correct answer.

41. Statement: "A rare opportunity to be a professional while you are at home/'— An advertisement for computer-literate housewives by a computer company
Assumptions:
I. Some housewives simultaneously desire to become professional.
II. Computer industry is growing at a fast pace.
III. It is possible to be a professional as well as a housewife.
1) Only I and II
2) Only II and III
3) Only I and III
4) Only II
5) None of these

42. Statement: India’s economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased industrial and vehicular pollution.
Assumptions:
I. Pollution is a part of industrial society.
II. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth.
III. A country desires economic growth with
1) Only I
2) Only II
3) Only I and II
4) Only III
5) None of these

43. Statement: Efforts to develop technologies more appropriate to the needs of the poorest sections of society need to be further intensified.
Assumptions:
I. Nothing is impossible if proper efforts are made.
II. Technology needs are different for different sections of society.
III. It is possible to develop appropriate tech-
1) Only I
2) Only III
3) Only II
4) Both II and III
5) None of these

44. Statement: "We have the distinction of being the only company in India as well as the second in the world to have won an ISO 9002 quality certification in our line of business"- Statement of company X’s Chairman.
Assumptions:
I. There were not many companies in the line of business of Company ‘X’.
II. Getting ISO 9002 in the line of business of Company ‘X’ is not easy.
III. The company ‘X’ desires to expand its business.
1) Only I
2) Only II
3) Only III
4) Only II and III
5) None of these

45. Statement: Co-operative social relationships contribute to develop individual potentialities.

Assumptions
I. Every society desires to prosper.
II. Individuals desire to develop their potential.
III. It is possible to create and maintain co-operative environment in a society.
1) Only II and III
2) Only II and I
3) Only I and III only II
4) None of these

Directions (Q. 46-50): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between "Strong" arguments and "Weak" arguments insofar as they relate to the question. "Strong" arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. "Weak" arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Instructions: Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered A and B. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer (1) if only argument A is strong.
Give answer (2) if only argument B is strong.
Give answer (3) if either A or B is strong.
Give answer (4) if neither A nor B is strong; and
Give answer (5) if both A and B are strong.

46. Statement: Should government established higher level Institutes of Technology (IITs) be privatised?
Arguments:
I. Yes, privatisation will make these institutes financially healthy, competitive and quality conscious.
II. Yes, privatisation is the key of the new era can we survive without it?

47. Statement: Should vacations of court judges be reduced?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it will speed up judicial process and many people are likely to get justice in reasonable time.
II. Yes, it is a sign of British legacy, why should we carry it further?

48. . Statement: Should the practice of transfers of clerical cadre employees from one city to another government office be stopped?
Arguments:
I. No, transfer of employees is a routine administrative matter and we must continue it.
II. Yes, it involves lot of governmental expenditure and inconvenience to many compared to the benefits it yields.

49. Statement: Should higher qualification be the only criteria for internal promotions in any organisation?
Arguments:
I. Yes, why not? In fact only higher qualification is more important than other factors.
II. No, quality of performance and other factors are more important than mere higher qualification in case of internal promotion.

50. Statement: Should Indian scientists working abroad be called back to India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, they must serve the motherland first and forget about discoveries, honours, facilities and all.
II. No, we have enough talent, let them stay where they want.

Questions Answer
1 1
2 3
3 2
4 5
5 3
6 1
7 4
8 2
9 4
10 1
11 5
12 3
13 3
14 3
15 2
16 3
17 1
18 4
19 5
20 4
21 3
22 4
23 5
24 1
25 2
26 2
27 4
28 3
29 4
30 1
31 5
32 5
33 2
34 2
35 1
36 1
37 4
38 5
39 4
40 3
41 3
42 3
43 4
44 4
45 1
46 1
47 1
48 2
49 2
50 4

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